Answer: the answer is linear
Step-by-step explanation: (not sure what functions it’s talkin about but it is linear)
The answer is c because of y=mx+b
80 inches in standard notation using feet and inches would be expressed as 6 ft 8 inches by converting inches into feet and inches.
The solution to the given problem is to use some standard conversion units that are:
Solution:
As mentioned above that one inch is equal to 0.8333 foot therefore
1 foot = 12 inches
then,
80 inches would be equal to
= ft
= ft
= 6ft 8 inches
= 6' 8"
Thus, 80 inches in standard notation using feet and inches would be expressed as 6 ft 8 inches by converting inches into feet and inches.
Learn more:
brainly.com/question/884268
Answer:
-8xy+3x+2z
x+3yz-8
Step-by-step explanation:
Step-by-step explanation:
In ∆ABC, m∠B = 90°
Therefore ∆ABC is a right angled triangle with sides AB = 4 & BC = 3. AC is the hypotenuse.
Hence, by Pythagoras theorem: