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Darina [25.2K]
3 years ago
10

Use the following table for the problem below.

Business
1 answer:
baherus [9]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

No option is correct:

  • A. Larry offers Curly 1 ping-pong ball for 1/4 of a hat.
  • B. Curly offers Larry 1 hat for 3 ping-pong balls.
  • C. Curly offers Larry 1 hat for 4 ping-pong balls.
  • D. Larry offers Curly 1 ping-pong ball for 1/3 hat.

In order for Curly to win and Larry lose, Curly must offer 1 hat in exchange for 6 or more ping-pong balls.

  • Option A: Larry wins 1 ping-pong ball.
  • Option B: Larry wins 2 ping-pong balls.
  • Option C: Larry wins 3 ping-pong balls.
  • Option D: Larry wins 0.13 of a hat.  

Explanation:

Opportunity costs are the benefits lost or extra costs associated to choosing one investment or activity over another alternative.

In this case, Larry can either have 1 hat or 5 ping-pong balls. Curly can have 1 hat or 2 ping-pong balls.

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Yuki is part of a sales team. He effectively coordinates his tasks with others in the team and willingly contributes to their ef
bulgar [2K]

Answer:

d.Level 2

Explanation:

Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that Yuki is in the level 2 of the level-5 leadership pyramid. This level emphasizes an individuals contributions towards the other members of a group and adding their individual capabilities to the group in order to help the group achieve their overall goals. Which is exactly what Yuki is doing as described in the question.

5 0
3 years ago
Xcel chpter 8 phil is shopping for an annuity that guarantees he cannot outlive the benefits. which of these benefit options wou
N76 [4]
The answer to this question is <span>Guaranteed lifetime withdrawal benefits
in the </span><span>Guaranteed lifetime withdrawal benefits the rider will be allowed to withdraw of invested amount without waiting for the benefir will be annuitized. This type of benefit options will be perfect for people who believe they wouldn't live long enough to see the benefit is fully annuitized. (in most cases, they have previous health concern)</span>
7 0
3 years ago
of inventory can absorb variations in flow rates by acting as a source of supply for a downstream step.
Vanyuwa [196]

Buffer of inventory can absorb variations in flow rates by acting as a source of supply for a downstream step.

<h3>What is a buffer?</h3>
  • In manufacturing, a buffer is used to account for fluctuations in the production process. Consider a buffer as a means to guarantee that your production line will continue to function normally even if unexpected circumstances arise.
  • Having enough supplies on hand to ensure smooth operations is one example of a buffer in manufacturing. To help stabilize any fluctuations they encounter with their supply and demand chains, production capabilities, and lead times, manufacturers will often keep inventories of the raw materials and supplies needed for production on hand, as well as occasionally inventories of finished goods awaiting shipment.
  • Without the proper buffers, manufacturing procedures may sluggish, which would result in more costs and lower profitability.

To know more about buffer with the given link

brainly.com/question/19093015

#SPJ4

8 0
1 year ago
The particular market segment your company is trying to sell your products or services to is your _________
dolphi86 [110]

Answer:

Target Market

Explanation:

The target market is the people that a business has identified as potential buyers of its products and services. It is the group of customers that a business targets with its advertising messages. Therefore, the target market is that group of customers that a business expects to buy its products. A target market consists of existing and potential customers.

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose that General Motors Acceptance Corporation issued a bond with 10 years until​ maturity, a face value of $ 1 comma 000​,
Illusion [34]

Answer:

$1,053.48

Explanation:

For computing the price of the bond we use the Present value formula which is to be shown in the attachment below:

Given that,  

Future value = $1,000

Rate of interest = 6.4%

NPER = 10 years  - 1 year = 9 year

PMT = $1,000 × 7.2% = $72

The formula is shown below:

= -PV(Rate;NPER;PMT;FV;type)

After applying the above formula, the price of the bond is $1,053.48

3 0
3 years ago
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