Answer:
You draw it on the graph right
So what you need to do is find the less he can use.
Yy^2 I'm pretty sure is the answer!
The given inequality is:

This inequality can be divided in two parts as:
a)

b)

Solving part a:

Solving part b:

Therefore, the solution to the given inequality is

and

. Combining both the ranges we get the solution:

.
In interval notation, this solution can be expressed as [1,5]
Answer:
a) No
b) 42%
c) 8%
d) X 0 1 2
P(X) 42% 50% 8%
e) 0.62
Step-by-step explanation:
a) No, the two games are not independent because the the probability you win the second game is dependent on the probability that you win or lose the second game.
b) P(lose first game) = 1 - P(win first game) = 1 - 0.4 = 0.6
P(lose second game) = 1 - P(win second game) = 1 - 0.3 = 0.7
P(lose both games) = P(lose first game) × P(lose second game) = 0.6 × 0.7 = 0.42 = 42%
c) P(win first game) = 0.4
P(win second game) = 0.2
P(win both games) = P(win first game) × P(win second game) = 0.4 × 0.2 = 0.08 = 8%
d) X 0 1 2
P(X) 42% 50% 8%
P(X = 0) = P(lose both games) = P(lose first game) × P(lose second game) = 0.6 × 0.7 = 0.42 = 42%
P(X = 1) = [ P(lose first game) × P(win second game)] + [ P(win first game) × P(lose second game)] = ( 0.6 × 0.3) + (0.4 × 0.8) = 0.18 + 0.32 = 0.5 = 50%
e) The expected value 
f) Variance 
Standard deviation 