Yes, 23 has an inverse mod 1000 because gcd(23, 1000) = 1 (i.e. they are coprime).
Let <em>x</em> be the inverse. Then <em>x</em> is such that
23<em>x</em> ≡ 1 (mod 1000)
Use the Euclidean algorithm to solve for <em>x</em> :
1000 = 43×23 + 11
23 = 2×11 + 1
→ 1 ≡ 23 - 2×11 (mod 1000)
→ 1 ≡ 23 - 2×(1000 - 43×23) (mod 1000)
→ 1 ≡ 23 - 2×1000 + 86×23 (mod 1000)
→ 1 ≡ 87×23 - 2×1000 ≡ 87×23 (mod 1000)
→ 23⁻¹ ≡ 87 (mod 1000)
Answer:
1) Arithmetic since it decreases by 3 so, -3n + 38.
2) Arithmetic since it decreases by 20 each time, so -20n+17
Step-by-step explanation:
C) Moe highest probability=14, median (50% of the values), mean=central measure of the '50%' all are 14-15, C) is the closest, no? :)
Answer:
3
Step-by-step explanation:
4-1
Answer:
4/5
Step-by-step explanation:
Steps to simplifying fractions
Find the GCD (or HCF) of numerator and denominator
GCD of 216 and 270 is 54
Divide both the numerator and denominator by the GCD
216 ÷ 54
270 ÷ 54
Reduced fraction:
4
5
