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3 years ago

chad has two pieces of wood. one piece is 7/12 foot long. second is 5/12 foot longer than forst. how long is second piece

Mathematics

2 answers:

Lerok [7]3 years ago

7 0

1st piece = 7/12.

2nd = 5/12 longer.

2nd = 7/12 + 5/12 = (7 + 5) / 12 = 12/12 = 1.

2nd piece = 1 foot long.

Nookie1986 [14]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Alright lets get started.

Clad has two pieces of wood.

The length of first wood piece is= $\frac{7}{12}$

length of the second wood piece is $\frac{5}{12}$ longer than the first wood piece.

So, the length of the second wood piece is = $\frac{7}{12}+\frac{5}{12}=\frac{12}{12}=1$

Hence, the length of the second wood piece is 1 foot long. : Answer

Hope it will help.

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Brianna has x nickels and y pennies. She has no less than 20 coins worth no more

Bond [772]

Answer:

$y \ge 20 - x$

$y \le 80 -5x$

$(x,y) = (15,5)$

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

$Nickels = x$

$Pennies = y$

$Amount = \$0.80$ maximum

$Coins = 20$ minimum

Required

Solve graphically

First, we need to determine the inequalities of the system.

For number of coins, we have:

$x\ +\ y\ge 20$ because the number of coins is not less than 20

For the worth of coins, we have:

$0.05x\ +\ 0.01y\ \le0.80$ because the worth of coins is not more than 0.80

So, we have the following equations:

$x\ +\ y\ge 20$

$0.05x\ +\ 0.01y\ \le0.80$

Make y the subject in both cases:

$y \ge 20 - x$

$0.01y \le 0.80 - 0.05x$

Divide through by 0.01

$\frac{0.01y}{0.01} \le \frac{0.80}{0.01} -\frac{ 0.05x}{0.01}$

$y \le \frac{0.80}{0.01} -\frac{ 0.05x}{0.01}$

$y \le 80 -5x$

The resulting inequalities are:

$y \ge 20 - x$

$y \le 80 -5x$

The two inequalities are plotted on the graph as shown in the attachment.

$y \ge 20 - x$ --- Blue

$y \ge 80 -5x$ --- Green

Point A on the attachment are possible solutions

At A:

$(x,y) = (15,5)$

4 0

2 years ago

A family paid $26.400 as a down payment for a home. If this represents 16% of the price of the home, find the price of the home.

Vlada [557]

The correct answer is:

How to find X if P percent of it is Y. Use the percentage formula Y/P% = X

Convert the problem to an equation using the percentage formula: Y/P% = X
Y is 26,400, P% is 16%, so the equation is 26,400/16% = X
Convert the percentage to a decimal by dividing by 100.
Converting 16% to a decimal: 16/100 = 0.16
Substitute 0.16 for 16% in the equation: 26,400/0.16 = X
Do the math: 26,400/0.16 = X
X = 165,000
So $ 165,000 is the price of the home.

I hope this helps you!!

7 0

3 years ago

10t = 90 <br><br> i seriously dont know what to put to make it longer anymore bruv

kondor19780726 [428]

Answer:t= 9

Step-by-step explanation: 10t =90

divide 10 on both sides

so 10t /10 and 90/10

which means t=9

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Expanded form: (4a+4b)^3

TiliK225 [7]

Step-by-step explanation:

use the formula: (a+b)³ = a³+3a²b+3ab²+b³

and place the corresponding values.

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3 years ago

You take a quiz with 6 multiple choice questions. After you studied your estimated that you would have about an 80 % chance of g

Arada [10]

Answer:

1.15%

Step-by-step explanation:

To get the probability of m independent events you multiply the individual probability of each event. In this case we have m independent events, each one with the same probability, therefore:

$p^{m}$

$0.8^{20} = 1.15\%$

This is a particlar scenario of binomial distribution problem. So the binomial distribution questions are about the number of success of m independent events, where every individual event has the same p probability. In the question we have 20 events and each event has a probability of 80%. The binomial distribution formula is:

$\binom{n}{k} * p^{k} * (1-p)^{n-k}$

n is the number of events

k is the number of success

p is the probability of each individual event

$\binom{n}{k}$ is the binomial coefficient

the binomial coefficient allows to find the subsets of k elements in a set of n elements. In this case there is only one subset possible since the only way to get 20 of 20 correct questions is to getting right all questions (for getting 19 of 20 questions there are many ways, for example getting the first question wrong and all the other questions right, or getting second questions wrong and all the other questions right, etc).

$\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}$

therefore, for this questions we have:

$\frac{20!}{20!(20-20)!} * 0.8^{20} * (1-0.8)^{0} = 1.15\%$

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3 years ago