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forsale [732]
3 years ago
6

Kayla plans to swim 2 laps per minute until she swims 12 laps. She figures this will take 1/6 minute. Which is NOT a reason why

this conclusion is wrong?
A.When you divide 2 by 12, you get 1/6, but the unit is not minutes.
B.If Kayla swims more than 2 laps, the time will be more than 1 minute.
C.In 1/6 minute, Kayla would swim fewer than 2 laps.
D.She should have multiplied 2 by 12 instead of dividing.
Mathematics
2 answers:
nignag [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

It is D because if you multiply 2 by 12, you will get 24. So D is the answer because that one is the one that presents why her conclusion is correct

maks197457 [2]3 years ago
4 0
D because if you multiply 2 by 12 you would get 24, and the is not the right answer.
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Answer:

a) P(X \leq 2)= P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)

And we can use the probability mass function and we got:

P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115  

P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576  

P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369  

And adding we got:

P(X \leq 2)=0.0115+0.0576+0.1369 = 0.2061

b) P(X=4)=(20C4)(0.2)^4 (1-0.2)^{20-4}=0.2182  

c) P(X>3) = 1-P(X \leq 3) = 1- [P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)+P(X=3)]

P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115  

P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576  

P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369

P(X=3)=(20C3)(0.2)^3 (1-0.2)^{20-3}=0.2054

And replacing we got:

P(X>3) = 1-[0.0115+0.0576+0.1369+0.2054]= 1-0.4114= 0.5886

d) E(X) = 20*0.2= 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts  

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".  

Solution to the problem  

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:  

X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.2)  

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

Part a

We want this probability:

P(X \leq 2)= P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)

And we can use the probability mass function and we got:

P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115  

P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576  

P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369  

And adding we got:

P(X \leq 2)=0.0115+0.0576+0.1369 = 0.2061

Part b

We want this probability:

P(X=4)

And using the probability mass function we got:

P(X=4)=(20C4)(0.2)^4 (1-0.2)^{20-4}=0.2182  

Part c

We want this probability:

P(X>3)

We can use the complement rule and we got:

P(X>3) = 1-P(X \leq 3) = 1- [P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)+P(X=3)]

P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115  

P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576  

P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369

P(X=3)=(20C3)(0.2)^3 (1-0.2)^{20-3}=0.2054

And replacing we got:

P(X>3) = 1-[0.0115+0.0576+0.1369+0.2054]= 1-0.4114= 0.5886

Part d

The expected value is given by:

E(X) = np

And replacing we got:

E(X) = 20*0.2= 4

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