18/32 to its lowest terms is 9/16
The answer is b. (-2,2)
Since it is a dilation of 2, multiply each number by 2.
-1*2=-2
1*2=2
So after the dilation, it would be (-2,2)
Answer:
what about the equation
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: B each charm costs 15 dollars
Step-by-step explanation: because each money increment is 15$ so the answer is $15
~Brainliest would be appreciated
Answer:
19657
Step-by-step explanation:
By PEMDAS, we know we have to calculate the exponents first, then multiply the 2, and then subtract the 7³
2*10⁴ = 20000
20000 - 7³ = 19657
This is the third time I've seen this question. Are you posting this question again and again?
