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brilliants [131]
3 years ago
12

Why does the​ self-correcting mechanism stop working when the policy rate hits the zero lower​ bound?

Business
1 answer:
Alex73 [517]3 years ago
4 0

The available options

A. The​ self-correcting mechanism stops working because the falling inflation produced by a negative output gap produces higher rather than lower real interest rates when the policy rate hits the zero lower​ bound, and this increase depresses planned spending and further widens the output gap.

B. The​ self-correcting mechanism stops working because the falling inflation produced by a negative output gap produces lower rather than higher real interest rates when the policy rate hits the zero lower​ bound, and this decrease depresses saving and investment and therefore further widens the output gap.

C. The​ self-correcting mechanism stops working because the rising inflation produced by a negative output gap produces lower rather than higher real interest rates when the policy rate hits the zero lower​ bound, and this decrease depresses planned spending and further widens the output gap.

D. The​ self-correcting mechanism stops working because the rising inflation produced by a positive output gap produces lower rather than higher real interest rates when the policy rate hits the zero lower​ bound, and this decrease enhances planned spending and further widens the output gap.

Answer:

A

Explanation:

For a given situation in the question above the correct answer is Option A, which is: The​ self-correcting mechanism stops working because the falling inflation produced by a negative output gap produces higher rather than lower real interest rates when the policy rate hits the zero lower​ bound, and this increase depresses planned spending and further widens the output gap.

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A registered investment adviser often recommends real estate limited partnership investments to her wealthy clients. The RIA's p
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Answer:

B.Her actions are inconsistent with the advice being given to her clients and this must be disclosed

Explanation:

A registered investment adviser often recommends real estate limited partnership investments to her wealthy clients. The RIA's personal financial statement and income are consistent with those of her wealthy clients, yet she never buys limited partnership units for her personal account. Which statement is TRUE

A real estate limited partnership (RELP) is a group of investors who pool their financial resources to invest in property purchasing, development, or leasing. Under its limited partnership status, This form of partnership  has a general partner who bears full liability and limited partners who are predispose  only up to the amount they contribute

The registered investment adviser does not practice what she teaches. She might just be in the profession for the money. She might also understand the risk associated with the real estate limited partnership investments and hence  would want to be risk averse herself. she should let her clients know the nitty gritty of the partnership and put a disclaimer across to them

4 0
3 years ago
Under _________dividend reinvestment plan, the company gives any cash dividends that investors would have received in a bank, wh
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Answer:

Old Stock

Explanation:

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Under the <em>Old stock dividend reinvestment plan, </em>an outside trustee, that is, a member of the board who is not an officer in the company, repurchases the company's existing shares in the stock market and then allocates the shares purchased among the stockholders. They sell the shares at market price. Most times, in order to encourage shareholders participation the company making the repurchase takes care of the commission fees.

8 0
3 years ago
What type of résumé presents the job seeker's characteristics and experience in terms that accommodate the computer search proce
Reil [10]
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3 years ago
A perfect hedge (full coverage) on translation exposure can usually be achieved when which of the following occurs? a. Using a f
attashe74 [19]

Answer:

e). None of the above, because a perfect hedge does not exist

A perfect hedge is nearly impossible

Explanation:

A perfect hedge is a position undertaken by an investor that would eliminate the risk of an existing position, or a position that eliminates all market risk from a portfolio. In order to be a perfect hedge, a position would need to have a 100% inverse correlation to the initial position.

At the time of taking an opposite position in Derivatives Market, Perfect Hedge would mean covering the risk involved in the Cash Market Position completely, i.e. 100%. 2. Imperfect Hedge: When the position in the cash market is not completely hedged or not hedged to 100%, then such a hedge is called Imperfect Hedge.

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