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pashok25 [27]
3 years ago
12

List L consists of numbers 1, square root of 2, x, and x^2 , where x>0, and the range of the numbers in list L is 4. Which qu

antity is larger? A. x B. 2
Mathematics
1 answer:
Hitman42 [59]3 years ago
3 0
If the range of the numbers in the list L is 4, then x can't be 4 since there is an element in the list that is x^2. Therefore,
0 ≤ x^2 ≤ 4 so that it would be the highest number and
0 ≤x ≤ 2

So, the value of x can be equal to 2 but not higher. So, 2 is always greater or equal to x.
You might be interested in
Which of the quadratic functions has the narrowest graph? y = –2x2 y=-1/2x^2 y = –4x2 y=1/7x^2
vovikov84 [41]
Look at the coefficient of x², ignore the positive or negative sign. The larger the coefficient, the narrower the graph. 
in this case, the coefficients are -2, -1/2, -4, and 1/7
ignore the positive or negative sign, 4 is the largest number, so y=-4x² is the narrowest.

Note: the positive/negative sign tells you whether the graph opens upward or downward. It doesn't determine the width of the graph. 

5 0
3 years ago
The price of an item costs $13 to make. It is marked up $6.50 to sell. What is the percent marked-up
Whitepunk [10]

(1 + x) (13) = 13+6.5

13x + 13 = 19.5

13x = 6.5

x = 0.5

The item was marked up by 50%

4 0
2 years ago
On Monday, your bank account balance was $12.58. Because you didn't realize this, you wrote a check for $30.72 for groceries. Th
Ivenika [448]

the balance would probably be $37

6 0
3 years ago
A research study uses 800 men under the age of 55. Suppose that 30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an incr
ss7ja [257]

Answer:

a) There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

b) There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are only two possible outcomes: Either the men has the chromosome, or he hasn't. So we use the binomial probability distribution.

Binomial probability

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And \pi is the probability of X happening.

In this problem, we have that:

30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an increased risk for high blood pressure, so \pi = 0.30

(a) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that exactly 1 man has the marker?

10 men, so n = 10

We want to find P(X = 1). So:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}

P(X = 1) = C_{10,1}.(0.30)^{1}.(0.7)^{9} = 0.1211

There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

(b) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that more than 1 has the marker?

That is P(X > 1)

We have that:

P(X \leq 1) + P(X > 1) = 1

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1)

We also have that:

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.30)^{0}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.0282

So

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.0282 + 0.1211 = 0.1493

Finally

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1) = 1 - 0.1493 = 0.8507

There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

3 0
3 years ago
Solve -2z – 5 > 3 for z.
Natasha2012 [34]

Hi,

- 2z - 5 > 3

- 2z > 8

z < - 4

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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