2+2 is 4. You learned this in 1st grade
Step-by-step explanation:
every triangle inscribed into a circle with the baseline being a diameter of the circle must be a right-angled triangle.
therefore,
angle XVY = 90°.
for VY we can use Pythagoras
c² = a² + b²
with c being the Hypotenuse (the line opposite of the 90° angle, in our case XY).
XY = 2×ZY = 2×17 = 34.
so,
34² = 30² + VY²
VY² = 34² - 30² = 1156 - 900 = 256
VY = 16
The answer would be 2<span>√<span>6 and in decimal form </span></span><span>4.898979, I hope this helps!</span>
Answer:
0.03333
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time.
Chance for any machine is thus equaly likely = 1/3
The rate of producing a faulty pin from Machine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%.
Machine I II III total
Faulty 0.10 0.20 0.05
Prob 0.3333 0.3333 0.3334 1
Faulty*prob 0.03333 0.06666 0.16665 0.26664
Thus probability that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachine
= 0.03333
