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seropon [69]
3 years ago
12

What is the greatest number of Mondays that can occur in 365 consecutive days?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Inga [223]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

  53

Step-by-step explanation:

365 days is 52 weeks plus 1 day. If that day is Monday, there can be 53 of them in 365 days.

Kitty [74]3 years ago
6 0
There are 52 weeks in a year and plus 1 day. If that day is a monday then your answer is 53.
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3 years ago
For every 1 litre of water used to make a medicine, 269ml of sucrose and 61ml of saline solution are used. Express the amount of
Burka [1]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1 litre = 1000 ml

water : Sucrose : Saline = 1000 : 269 : 61

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3 years ago
Julie and Eric row their boat (at a constant speed) downstream for 40 miles in 4 hours, helped by the current. Rowing at the sam
Liula [17]

Answer: 3 miles per hour

<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>

Use the formula "distance (d) = rate (r) x time (t)" to create a system of equations.

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                            time          rate      distance        <u>EQUATION</u>

Downstream:     4 hours     r + c       40 miles         4(r + c) = 40

Upstream:         10 hours    r - c        40 miles         10(r - c) = 40


Distribute, then eliminate r to solve for c:

Down: 4r + 4c = 40  →   5(4r + 4c = 40)  →   20r + 20c = 200

  Up: 10r - 10c = 40  → -2(10r - 10c = 40) → <u>-20r + 20c</u> =<u>  -80</u>

                                                                                40c = 120

                                                                              <u> ÷40  </u>  <u>÷40 </u>

                                                                                    c =   3

4 0
3 years ago
Refer to the Trowbridge Manufacturing example in Problem 2-35. The quality control inspection proce- dure is to select 6 items,
Ivanshal [37]

Answer:

77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each item, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of an item being defective is independent of other items. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

The true proportion of defects is 0.15

This means that p = 0.15

Sample of 6:

This means that n = 6

What is the probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6?

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{6,0}.(0.15)^{0}.(0.85)^{6} = 0.3771

P(X = 1) = C_{6,1}.(0.15)^{1}.(0.85)^{5} = 0.3993

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.3771 + 0.3993 = 0.7764

77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.

5 0
3 years ago
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