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2 years ago

PLEASE HELP PERSONAL FINANCE / LAUNCH QUESTION

Mathematics

1 answer:

Kobotan [32]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

option d: 25% unfavorable

Step-by-step explanation:

The budget is $40, and it was spent $50, so as the amount spent was higher than the budget, we have a unfavorable percent of variance.

The amount spent more than the budget was:

50 - 40 = 10

Now to calculate the percent of variance, we divide the value spent more than the budget (10) by the value of the budget (40)

Percent of variance = 10 / 40 = 0.25 = 25%

So the answer is 25% unfavorable, option d

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Chris Johnson earns $34,850 annually as an engineer. She single on sports your father. The state tax rate in her state is 3% of

Natasha2012 [34]

Answer: 1,045.50

Step-by-step explanation: hope this helps champ.

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3 years ago

What is the equation for <br><br> 6/7 - 1/8=

miv72 [106K]

Another way to put 6/7 - 1/8 is 48/56- 7/56 since the LCM of 7 and 8 is 56 (if you don’t know what that is I can explain it) sorta like subtraction you subtract both numerators (48 and 7 or 48-7) which gives you 41 then you put the denominator (56) below that. So in other words it equals 41/56

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2 years ago

Does any body know this?? plss help

slega [8]

sorry ill give points back

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2 years ago

Which is the simplified form of the expression ((p squared) (q Superscript 5 Baseline)) Superscript negative 4 Baseline times ((

Alexus [3.1K]

Answer:

$q^{-30}$

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the expression:

$((p^2) (q ^5)) ^{-4} X ((p ^{-4}) (q^5)) ^{-2}$

First, we open the outer brackets

$=(p^{2X-4}) (q ^{5X-4})X (p ^{-4X-2}) (q^{5X-2})\\\\=(p^{-8}) (q ^{-20})X (p ^{8}) (q^{-10})\\\\$Next, we can collect like terms\\\\=p^{-8}Xp ^{8}Xq ^{-20}Xq ^{-10}\\\\$Applying addition law of indices\\\\=p^{-8+8}Xq^{-20+(-10)}\\\\=p^0 X q^{-30}\\\\=1 X q^{-30}\\\\=q^{-30}$

Therefore:

$((p^2) (q ^5)) ^{-4} X ((p ^{-4}) (q^5)) ^{-2}=q^{-30$

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Pleaseeeeeee helpppppppp

mixer [17]

Answer:

B) Multiplying by 0

Step-by-step explanation:

This answer is correct because lets say we have a nonzero number, (IN this case lets say 4) 4+0 is 4, and that does not change the value because it is still 4, so A is not correct. Multiplying by 1 and dividing by one leads to the same conclusion. They both wind up to 4. The only one is B) because 4x0 is 0 and that isn't 4, so it changes value.

Hope this helped :)

5 0

2 years ago