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3 years ago

Note whether the following phenomena would be consistent with or a violation of the efficient market hypothesis.

Business

1 answer:

denis-greek [22]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

D) Stock prices of companies that announce increased earning in January tend to outperform the market in February.

Explanation:

The above is consistent with the Efficient Market Hypothesis. All others are a direct contravention.

The efficient market hypothesis (EMH), also known as the efficient market theory, is a hypothesis that states that the prices of shares contain all information and that consistent alpha generation is impossible.

According to the hypothesis, stocks always trade at their fair value on exchanges, making it impossible for investors to purchase undervalued stocks or sell stocks for inflated prices.

This means that it should not be possible to outperform the overall market through professional stock selection or market timing.

The only way according to EMH that an investor can obtain better returns is by purchasing riskier investments.

By implication, this also means that it is not possible to "beat the market" consistently on a risk-adjusted basis since market prices should only react to new information.

You would note that in the option D, earning (which is a key driver for demand of stock) is announced in one month. The natural reaction would be for the demand for that stock to surge in the next month.

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A decrease in the fixed asset turnover ratio from 3.0 to 2.2 indicates a.an unfavorable change in the efficiency of using fixed

kakasveta [241]

Answer:

d.an unfavorable change in the efficiency of using fixed assets to generate sales.

Explanation:

Since as we can see in the given situation that there is the reduction in the fixed asset turnover ratio i.e. it is reduced from 3 to 2.2 this means that there is a change i.e. unfavorable or non-favorable with respect to the efficiency of applying the fixed asset in order to producing or generating the sales

Therefore the option d is correct

6 0

3 years ago

A customer has a margin account that shows a market value of $190,000 and a debit balance of $90,000. in addition, the account h

vodka [1.7K]

A maintenance margin is a minimum equity an investor ought to preserve withinside the margin account after the acquisition has been made. Hence, the long market value at maintenance in this case is $120,000.

<h3>What do you mean by long market value?</h3>

Long market value at maintenance refers to the point where an account must fall (in market value) to reach minimum maintenance (25% of market value). ;

The maintenance margin is far presently set at 25% of the full value of the securities in a margin account as in step with Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA) requirements.

To calculate the long market value at maintenance, divide the debit balance by .75 ($90,000 / .75 = $120,000)

Hence, the long market value at maintenance is $120,000.

Learn more about long market value at maintenance:

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2 years ago

________ are the per-unit costs of production that will fluctuate depending on how many units or individual products a firm prod

postnew [5]

Variable costs are the per-unit costs....

3 0

3 years ago

What is one cost of avoiding insurance?

kkurt [141]

Answer: One of the costs of not having insurance is the cost of repairing. Another cost is paying insurance premiums. Losses caused by a lack of insurance are the price of not having insurance.

8 0

2 years ago

Perdue Company purchased equipment on April 1, 2014, for $270,000. The equipment was expected to have a useful life of three yea

otez555 [7]

Answer:

Straight line:

2014 $ 65,250

2015 $ 87,000

2016 $ 87,000

2017 $ 21,750

units-of-output method:

2014 $ 108,750

2015 $ 79,750

2016 $ 58,000

2017 $ 14,500

dobule declining method

2014 135,000

2015 45,000

2016 15,000

2017 9,000

Explanation:

Straight line:

(cost - salvage value) / useful life

(270,000 - 9,000)/3 = 87,000 per complete year

First year: from April 1st to December 31th

87,000 x 9/12 = 65,250

Second and third year are complete year thus, 87,000

fourth year: from Jan 1st to March 31th:

87,000 x 3/12 = 21,750

units-of-output method:

(cost - salvage value) / unit of output

261,000 / 18,000 = 14.5 per hour

We multiply each year hours by this rate

7,500 x 14.5 = 108,750

5,500x 14.5 = 79,750

4,000x 14.5 = 58,000

1,000 x 14.5 = 14,500

double declining

we multiply by twice the rate of of straight line:

1/3 x 2 = 2/3 we depreciate this amount of the carrying vbalue per year

Last year we adjust to obtain the residual value

Year Beginning Rate Dep expense Carrying value

2014 270,000 0.50 135,000 135,000

2015 135,000 0.67 90,000 45,000

2016 45,000 0.67 30,000 15,000

2017 15,000 6,000 9,000

5 0

3 years ago