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OlgaM077 [116]
3 years ago
12

Beth is the assistant store manager at a trendy clothing store. The store hires lots of seasonal employees. Beth has little rega

rd for the skill or ability of those she hires, and she is certain that few would come to work on time each day if it weren't for the fact that the store is known to fire any employee who fails to be on time. As a student of motivational theory, you would describe the management style of Beth as
Business
1 answer:
KonstantinChe [14]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The correct answer will be "Theory X".

Explanation:

  • Through Theory X, alternatives to administration may range across a hard methodology to another soft one. The hard or challenging framework is focused on intimidation, overt threats, small compared oversight as well as tighter restrictions, which are control or perhaps management system.
  • One such approach to management believes the average employee seems to have little motivation, lacks accountability, and therefore is structured to individual objectives.

So you might well characterize Beth's leadership approach as Theory X as being a graduate of motivation factors.

You might be interested in
"The company will pay a dividend of $15 per share 10 years from today and will increase the dividend by 5 percent per year there
statuscvo [17]

Answer:

Current Share price= $114.21

Explanation:

The Dividend Valuation Model is a technique adopted to detremine the value of an asset. According to this model, the value of an asset is the sum of the present values of the future cash flows that would arise from the asset discounted at the required rate of return (discount rate)

The model is premised on the concept of the time value of money. The idea that $1 today is not the same as $1 tomorrow. The $1 of today is worth more than that of tomorrow; because of the opportunity to earn interest. So to determine the worth of a future cash flow, we compute its worth today- its present value.

The Present Value of a future cash flow is the amount that needs to be invested today at a particular rate of return to equal the same cash flow in the future. Present value means the value in year 0 or now

The process of calculating the present value of a future sum is called discounting. So to calculate the current stock price in this question, we shall discount the future dividends using the required rate of return and then add them together.

So if an asset (e.g a stock) promises some cash flows in the future, those cash flows need to be brought to their present values and then be added to arrive at the value of the asset

In this question, the cash flows are the dividends as given and the rate of return (discount rate) is 15%

So we apply this model as follows:

Step 1 : PV of div from year 1 to 10  =  15× ((1-1.15)^(-10))/0.15)  =  75.282

Step 2:PV (in year 10)of div from year 11 onward=(15×1.05)/(0.15-0.05)=  157.5

Step 3:PV(in year 0) of div from year 11 onward =  157.5 × (1.15)^ (-10) =  38.93

Current Share price= $75.282 + $38.93 = $114.21

<em>Note:</em><em> step 3 is important because the the cash flows from year 11 onward were discounted to arrive at their values in year 10. Since we are interested in the current price i.e year 0 value, it is important that we re-discount again to bring them to their PV in year 0.</em>

8 0
2 years ago
Up in Smoke Tobacco Shops' bond carries a 9 percent coupon, pays interest semiannually, and has 10 years to maturity. What is th
lara [203]

Answer:

10%

Explanation:

Since the bond is selling at a discount, it means that the coupon rate is blow the market rate, so the actual rate must be higher. Since there is only one option with an interest rate above 9%, we must check to see if it works.

10% yearly interest rate = 5% semiannual interest rate

we must determine the PV of the 20 coupons paid and the face value at maturity.

to calculate the PV of the 20 coupons ($45 each) we can use an excel spreadsheet and the NPV function with a 5% discount rate: PV of the coupons = $560.80

the PV of the face value in 10 years = $1,000 / 1.05²⁰ = $376.89

the present value of the coupons and the bond at maturity = $560.80 + $376.89 = $937.69. The PV using a 5% semiannual rate is very similar to $937.75, and since the question asked us to round up to the nearest whole percent, we can assume it is correct.

6 0
3 years ago
Kelly Company issued $100,000 of 5%, 10-year bonds at 102 to a single investor. Each of the $1,000 bonds was convertible into 10
Angelina_Jolie [31]

Answer:

The amount credited to common stock upon conversion of the bonds is $101000

Explanation:

When the bond was issued there would been a debit of $102000($100000*$102/$100) to cash account and credit of $102000 to liabilities split into $100000 bonds payable and $2000 bond premium.

However, on conversion to common stock with premium of $1000 outstanding in the books,the amount to be credited into common stock account is the issue value less outstanding premium.

The amount credited to common stock=$102000-$1000=$101000

This can be shown with entries below:

Dr Bond payable     $100000

Dr Bond premium    $1000

Cr Common stock                      $101000

3 0
3 years ago
Brent has hired an OD consultant to understand why the company's process for paying invoices is so slow. He wants the consultant
Kamila [148]
Mechanic model of consulting
3 0
3 years ago
What is the hedonic theory of wage differentials? Discuss the characteristics of a normal-profit isoprofit curve. Combine isopro
Hatshy [7]

Answer:

hedonic Theory of Wages:  

Accept just two kinds of occupations in the work showcase (safe employments versus unsafe occupations). Under this, sheltered employments have likelihood of zero that specialist gets harmed. Unsafe occupations have likelihood of 1 and laborers know this. Laborers care about whether their occupations are sheltered or hazardous.  

Laborers expand utility by picking wage-chance blends that offer them the best measure of utility. Expect laborers disdain hazard, yet to various degrees, for example they have diverse ideal pay chance blends. Firms are on their isoprofit bends that give the hazard wage mixes that give zero (financial) benefit. They vary between firms. An indulgent pay work mirror the connection among wages and occupation qualities. It matches laborers with various hazard inclinations with firms that can give employments that coordinate these diverse hazard inclinations.  

Apathy bends uncover the exchange offs that a laborer favors among wages and level of hazard (chance thought to be an 'awful'). To give a similar utility, dangerous occupations must compensation higher wages than safe employments. The more prominent the laborer's aversion for hazard, the more prominent the pay off required for changing from a safe to an unsafe activity, and the more noteworthy the booking cost. As the pay firms bring to the table for hazardous occupations increments, less firms will extend to dangerous employment opportunities and bringing about a descending slanting interest bend as it turns out to be increasingly productive for firms to make occupations spare than to pay the higher compensation.  

Suppositions of Differential Wage Theory are:  

  1. The compensation differential is sure. Hazardous employments pay more than spare occupations.  
  2. The balance wage differential is that of the last laborer employed (the peripheral specialist). It's anything but a proportion of the normal abhorrence for chance among laborers in the work showcase.  
  3. Along these lines, everything except the minimal specialist are overcompensated by the market.  

On the off chance that a few specialists like to work in dangerous occupations (they are eager to pay for the option to be harmed) and if the interest for such laborers is little, the market repaying differential is negative. At point P, where supply rises to request, laborers utilized in unsafe occupations acquire not as much as laborers utilized in safe employments. The outline given beneath shows the circumstance:  

Isoprofit Curve:  

As it is exorbitant to create well-being, a firm contribution hazard level P* can make the working environment more secure for example move left on flat pivot, just on the off chance that it diminishes compensation while keeping benefits consistent, so that the iso-benefit bend is upward slanting. Higher isoprofit bend returns lower benefit.

6 0
3 years ago
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