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damaskus [11]
3 years ago
11

What is 3/8 divided by (-2) ?

Mathematics
1 answer:
inysia [295]3 years ago
8 0
3/8 divided by -2 is equals to 3/8 times the reciprocal of -2.

So, we will get 3/8*-1/2

The result is -3/16
You might be interested in
One member of a gardening club can plant flowers in 12 hours. With two members of the club working together the job can be done
mariarad [96]

Answer:

24 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

One member of the gardening club can alone plant flowers in 12 hours.

So in 1 hour he can plant 1/12 of the flowers.

Let the time required by the second member of the club to plant flowers alone be x hours.

Then in 1 hour he can plant 1/x of the flowers.

Now when the two members work together,each hour they can plant:

\[\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{x}\] of the flowers.

But they can together complete the job in 8 hours. So in one hour they plant 1/8 of the flowers.

=> \[\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{x}=\frac{1}{8}\]

=> \[\frac{1}{x}=\frac{1}{24}\]


=> x=24

So the second member can plant the flowers alone in 24 hours

4 0
2 years ago
Which one is correct?
galina1969 [7]

Answer:

720cm^2

Step-by-step explanation:

i dont think this is right answer

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A train leaves Philadelphia at 2:00 PM. A second train leaves the same city in the same direction at 4:00 PM. The second train t
polet [3.4K]

Answer: First train speed shall be 42 mi/hr

Second train speed shall be 84 mi/hr

Yes it is the valid answer, it gets annoying when almost everyone enters the wrong answer for a good laugh. Either way, hope this helps! Have a spectacular day.

Step-by-step explanation:

What is the 1st train's head start in miles?

Let +s+ = the speed of the 1st train in mi/hr

From 2PM to 4PM is 2 hrs

+d%5B1%5D+=+s%2A2+

---------------------

Let +d+ = distance the 2nd train travels until

it overtakes the 1st train

From 4PM to 6PM is 2 hrs

Start time when the 2nd train leaves

---------------------

Equation for 1st train:

(1) +d+-+2s+=+s%2A2+

Equation for 2nd train:

(2) +d+=+%28+s%2B42+%29%2A2+

--------------------

Substitute (2) into (1)

(1) +%28+s%2B42+%29%2A2+-+2s+=+s%2A2+

(1) +2s+%2B+84+-+2s+=+2s+

(1) +2s+=+84+

(1) +s+=+42+

and

+s%2B+42+=+42+%2B+42+

+s+%2B+42+=+84+

------------------

The 1st train's speed is 42 mi/hr

The 2nd train's speed is 84 mi/hr

---------------------------

check:

(2) +d+=+%28+s%2B42+%29%2A2+

(2) +d+=84%2A2+

(2) +d+=+168+

and

(1) +d+-+2s+=+s%2A2+

(1) +d+-+2%2A42+=+42%2A2+

(1) +d+=+84+%2B+84+

(1) +d+=+168+

8 0
2 years ago
Could the inverse of a non-function be a function? Explain or give an example.
Kitty [74]

Answer:

The inverse of a non-function mapping is not necessarily a function.

For example, the inverse of the non-function mapping \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\! is the same as itself (and thus isn't a function, either.)

Step-by-step explanation:

A mapping is a set of pairs of the form (a,\, b). The first entry of each pair is the value of the input. The second entry of the pair would be the value of the output.  

A mapping is a function if and only if for each possible input value x, at most one of the distinct pairs includes x\! as the value of first entry.

For example, the mapping \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0) \rbrace is a function. However, the mapping \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace isn't a function since more than one of the distinct pairs in this mapping include 1 as the value of the first entry.

The inverse of a mapping is obtained by interchanging the two entries of each of the pairs. For example, the inverse of the mapping \lbrace (a_{1},\, b_{1}),\, (a_{2},\, b_{2})\rbrace is the mapping \lbrace (b_{1},\, a_{1}),\, (b_{2},\, a_{2})\rbrace.

Consider mapping \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!. This mapping isn't a function since the input value 0 is the first entry of more than one of the pairs.

Invert \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\! as follows:

  • (0,\, 0) becomes (0,\, 0).
  • (0,\, 1) becomes (1,\, 0).
  • (1,\, 0) becomes (0,\, 1).
  • (1,\, 1) becomes (1,\, 1).

In other words, the inverse of the mapping \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\! would be \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!, which is the same as the original mapping. (Mappings are sets. There is no order between entries within a mapping.)

Thus, \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\! is an example of a non-function mapping that is still not a function.

More generally, the inverse of non-trivial ellipses (a class of continuous non-function \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} mappings, including circles) are also non-function mappings.

3 0
2 years ago
1/2÷5= to a improper fraction
Leokris [45]
1/10
hope this helps u out!
5 0
3 years ago
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