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RoseWind [281]
3 years ago
8

180 cm3 of hot tea at 97 °C are poured into a very thin paper cup with 20 g of crushed ice at 0 °C. Calculate the final temperat

ure of the "ice tea."(Hint: think about two processes: melting the ice into liquid and (maybe) warming the melted ice—now liquid.)
Physics
1 answer:
Zolol [24]3 years ago
8 0

Answer : The final temperature of the mixture is 91.9^oC

Explanation :

First we have to calculate the mass of water.

Mass = Density × Volume

Density of water = 1.00 g/mL

Mass = 1.00 g/mL × 180 cm³ = 180 g

In this problem we assumed that heat given by the hot body is equal to the heat taken by the cold body.

q_1=-q_2

m_1\times c_1\times (T_f-T_1)=-m_2\times c_2\times (T_f-T_2)

where,

c_1 = specific heat of hot water (liquid) = 4.18J/g^oC

c_2 = specific heat of ice (solid)= 2.10J/g^oC

m_1 = mass of hot water = 180 g

m_2 = mass of ice = 20 g

T_f = final temperature of mixture = ?

T_1 = initial temperature of hot water = 97^oC

T_2 = initial temperature of ice = 0^oC

Now put all the given values in the above formula, we get

(180g)\times (4.18J/g^oC)\times (T_f-97)^oC=-(20g)\times 2.10J/g^oC\times (T_f-0)^oC

T_f=91.9^oC

Therefore, the final temperature of the mixture is 91.9^oC

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Answer:

One of the leading theories of hot-Jupiter formation holds that gas giants in distant orbits become hot Jupiters when the gravitational influences from nearby stars or planets drive them into closer orbits. They formed as gas giants beyond the frost line and then migrated inwards.

Explanation:

In the migration hypothesis, a hot Jupiter forms beyond the frost line, from rock, ice, and gases via the core accretion method of planetary formation. The planet then migrates inwards to the star where it eventually forms a stable orbit. The planet may have migrated inward smoothly via type II orbital migration.  

Hot-Jupiters are heated gas giant planets that are very close to their stars, just a few million miles distant and orbiting their stellar hosts in just a few days. The reason why there isn't one in our Solar System is down to its formation. All gas giants form far from their star but then some migrate inwards.

Hot-Jupiters  will just happen to transit about 10% (that is, since orbital planes) this is consistent with the rate expected from geometry of . The actual frequencies of hot Jupiters around normal stars is surprisingly hard to figure out.

3 0
4 years ago
Miss Piggy is exercising her vocal chords by matching the frequency f = 686 Hz of her speaker 4 m away. Where should Kermit sit
monitta

Answer:

z=\frac{2n+1}{8} for n=0,1,2,3,...,15

Where z=0 m is the position of Miss Piggy and z=4 m is the position of the speaker.

Explanation:

Assuming that Miss Piggy emits a sound wave that is in phase with the speaker, and that z=0 is the position of Miss Piggy and z=4 is the position of the speaker, we would have a superposition of two traveling sound waves. Furthermore let's assume that both waves have the same amplitude. The total resulting wave will be given by:

\psi(t,z)=A\cos(\omega t-kz)+A\cos(\omega t +kz) where \omega is the angular frequency of the traveling wave and k is the wave number defined as k=\frac{2\pi}{\lambda}. \lambda is the wavelength of both traveling waves (they have the same wavelength because they have the same frequency). \lambda=\frac{v}{f} where v is the speed of sound.

By using the trigonometric identity 2\cos(A)\cos(B)=\cos(A+B)+\cos(A-B) we can rewrite \psi (t,z) as

\psi (t,z)=2A\cos(\omega t)\cos(kz).

In order for the resulting wave to have maximum destructive interference, that is to be zero for any time t, we need to have

\cos(kz)=0

\implies kz=(2n+1)\cdot \frac{\pi}{2}\implies z=(2n+1)\frac{\pi}{2k}=(2n+1)\frac{\pi}{2}\frac{\lambda}{2\pi}=(2n+1)\cdot \frac{\lambda}{4}

\implies z=(2n+1)\cdot\frac{v}{4f}=\frac{2n+1}{8}

3 0
3 years ago
A 0.200 H inductor is connected in series with a 88.0 Ω resistor and an ac source. The voltage across the inductor is vL=−(12.0V
Step2247 [10]

Answer:

a.  (VL)R/ωL[1 - cos[ωt]]  = (10.84 V)[1 - cos[(487rad/s)t]]

b. 1.084 mV

Explanation:

a. Since it is a series circuit, the current in the inductor is the same as the current in the resistor.

Now, the voltage across the inductor vL = -Ldi/dt.

So, the current, i = -1/L∫vLdt.

Now, vL = −(12.0V)sin[(487rad/s)t] and L = 0.200 H

Substituting these into i, we have

i = -1/L∫vLdt

= -1/0.200H∫[−(12.0V)sin[(487rad/s)t]]dt.

= -[−(12.0V)]/0.200H∫[sin[(487rad/s)t]]dt.

= 60V/H∫[sin[(487rad/s)t]]dt

Integrating i, we have

i = 60V/H ÷ [(487rad/s)[-cos[(487rad/s)t]] + C

at t = 0, i(0) = 0

0 = 60V/H ÷ [(487rad/s)[-cos[(487rad/s)× 0]] + C

0 = 60V/H ÷ [(487rad/s)[-cos[0]] + C

0 = 60V/H ÷ [(487rad/s)[-1]+ C

C = 60V/H ÷ [(487rad/s)

So, i = 60V/H ÷ [(487rad/s)[-cos[(487rad/s)t]] + 60V/H ÷ [(487rad/s)

i =  60V/H ÷ [(487rad/s)[1 - cos[(487rad/s)t]]

i = (0.123A)[1 - cos[(487rad/s)t]] = VL/ωL[1 - cos[ωt]] where ω = 487rad/s and VL = 12.0 V and L = 0.200 H

So, the voltage across the resistor vR = iR where R = resistance of resistor = 88.0 Ω

So, vR = iR = VL/ωL[1 - cos[ωt]] × R = (VL)R/ωL[1 - cos[ωt]]

=  (0.123A)[1 - cos[(487rad/s)t]] × 88.0 Ω

= (10.84 V)[1 - cos[(487rad/s)t]]

b. vR at t = 2.00 ms = 0.002 s

So, vR = (10.84 V)[1 - cos[(487rad/s)(0.002)]]

= (10.84 V)[1 - cos[0.974]]

= (10.84 V)[1 - 0.9999]

= (10.84 V)(0.0001)

= 0.001084

= 1.084 mV

3 0
3 years ago
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D.very small amounts of mass.
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3 years ago
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Answer:

vertical axis

Explanation:

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Hence, the correct option is (b) "vertical axis"

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3 years ago
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