Answer:my xbox name is lunabgdrg
Step-by-step explanation:
that is all
It’s is 28 I will explain how to do it first times 8x6 then subtract 12 and 4 and the two numbers u get add them and then divide it by 2
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
f⁻¹(x) is the inverse of f(x).
y = 4x − 9. To find the inverse, switch x and y and solve for y.
x = 4y − 9
x + 9 = 4y
y = (x + 9) / 4
So the inverse function is:
f⁻¹(x) = (x + 9) / 4
The answer is 20, because it goes up every time.
The number of trials and the probability of obtaining success will be given as P(X ≤ 2) = 0.9728.
<h3>How to find that a given condition can be modeled by binomial distribution?</h3>
Binomial distributions consist of n independent Bernoulli trials.
Bernoulli trials are those trials which end up randomly either on success (with probability p) or on failures( with probability 1- p = q (say))
Suppose we have random variable X pertaining to a binomial distribution with parameters n and p, then it is written as
X \sim B(n,p)
The probability that out of n trials, there'd be x successes is given by
Assume the random variable X has a binomial distribution with the given probability of obtaining success.
Then the number of trials and the probability of obtaining success will be
P(X ≤ 2), n = 4, p = 0.2
Then we get
Then the cumulative probability will be
Learn more about binomial distribution here:
brainly.com/question/13609688
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