Answer:
The best allocation base for assembling activities costs are the number of parts actually assembled.
Since the number of parts is not an option int his question, the second best allocation base for the assembling process is A) direct labor hours.
If the process is highly automated, then the second best allocation base would be machine hours, but that isn't an option either.
Complete Question:
What are the benefits of a long-term bond over a short-term bond?
Answer:
c. While long-term bonds have more risks associated with them, they have the potential to bring in higher returns for the initial investment.
Explanation:
A bond can be defined as a debt or fixed investment security, in which a bondholder (investor or creditor) loans an amount of money to the bond issuer (government or corporations) for a specific period of time. The bond issuer are expected to return the principal (face value) at maturity with an agreed upon interest (coupon), which are paid at fixed intervals.
Bonds are generally debts, which may be floated in different ways with respect to the issuer of the bond and its type. Bonds are used by government and corporate institutions to borrow money with interest and they also have to pay for the face value of the bonds at maturity.
Bonds are classified into two (2) main categories and these are;
I. Long-term bonds: they usually spread over a long period of time and as such locking the money of an investor down while availing them a higher interest rate. Also, they are considered to be more riskier than shorter bonds.
II. Short-term bonds: this type of bond mature quickly and as such paying the investor's principal on time. It covers a period of one to five years maximum in duration.
Hence, the benefits of a long-term bond over a short-term bond is that, while long-term bonds have more risks associated with them, they have the potential to bring in higher returns for the initial investment.
Answer:
10.02%
Explanation:
The computation of the WACC is shown below. The formula of WACC is shown below:
= (Weightage of debt × cost of debt) + (Weightage of preferred stock) × (cost of preferred stock) + (Weightage of common stock) × (cost of common stock)
= 27% × 7.6% × (1 - 0.40) + 9% × 5.9% + 64% × 12.9%
= 2.052% × (1 - 0.40) + 0.531% + 8.256%
= 10.02%
I’m sure that it’s true you nerd
