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aniked [119]
3 years ago
14

Acceleration vs. Mass

Physics
1 answer:
Tamiku [17]3 years ago
4 0

1st. Answer:as the mass of the cart increases, the acceleration the cart decreases.

2nd. An inverse relationship

Explanation:

Edge 2020 yu got my word

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Two charges separated by one meter exert a 9 N force on each other. If the charges are pushed to a 3 meter separation, the force
tamaranim1 [39]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

The formula of force that exists between two charges is expressed as;

F = kq1q2/r²

If two charges separated by one meter exert a 9 N force on each other, the;

9 = kq1q2/1²

9 = kq1q2 ..... 1

If the charges are pushed to a 3 meter separation, then;

F =  kq1q2/3²

F =  kq1q2/9 .... 2

Divide both equations;

9/F = (kq1q2)/ kq1q2/9

9/F =  kq1q2 * 9/ kq1q2

9/F = 9

F = 9/9

F = 1N

Hence if the charges are pushed to a 3 meter separation, then the force on EACH charge will be 1N. Hence the answer is False

3 0
3 years ago
What is the kinetic energy of an object with a mass of 50kg and is and it is traveling at a rate of 60m/s.
liq [111]

Answer:

90,000 J

Explanation:

Kinetic energy can be found using the following formula.

KE=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

where <em>m </em>is the mass in kilograms and <em>v</em> is the velocity in m/s.

We know the object has a mass of 50 kilograms. We also know it is a traveling at a rate of 60 m/s. Velocity is the speed of something, so the velocity of the object is 60 m/s.

<em>m</em>=50

<em>v</em>=60

Substitute these values into the formula.

KE=\frac{1}{2}*50*60^2

First, evaluate the exponent: 60^2. 60^2 is the same as multiplying 60, 2 times.

60^2=60*60=3,600

KE=\frac{1}{2}*50*3,600

Multiply 50 and 3,600

KE=\frac{1}{2}*180,000

Multiply 1/2 and 3,600, or divide 3,600 by 2.

KE=90,000

Add appropriate units. Kinetic energy uses Joules, or J.

KE=90,000 Joules

The kinetic energy of the object is 90,000 Joules

6 0
3 years ago
The best type of exercise for weight loss is
lbvjy [14]

Answer:

finding a workout.

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Its A i did it and i got a
n200080 [17]

Answer:

THATS COOL

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Which option would it be
guapka [62]
It would be 4 atm, because the way to figure out the final pressure is that (P1)(V1)=(P2)(V2)

meaning that the original pressure x original volume is equal to the final pressure x final volume. This gas law is called Boyle's law if you'd like to learn more about it.

But (1 atm)(40 mL)=(4 atm)(10 mL)

So it would be the second choice.
7 0
3 years ago
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