Answer:
The correct option is A
Step-by-step explanation:
Since (1, 3) are the solutions to the function g(x), then
g(x) = (x – 1)(x – 3) = x² –3x – x + 3 = x² – 4x + 3
We know that f(x) is on the same plane and f(1) = 1.
Let's take g(1) = (1 – 1)(1 – 3) = 0
Therefore, when x = 1; f = 1 and g = 0. Hence
g(1) = f(1) – 1
In order words, g(x) could be f(x) – 1.
The correct option is A
Answer: Those accused of crimes should be considered innocent until
proven guilty.
Step-by-step explanation:
A
Assuming the function is

, and not

which would be its own Maclaurin polynomial right away.

Recall the geometric power series,

where

. Replace

and we have

and so

We want the 4th degree polynomial, so
<h2>Answer: 4</h2><h2>what is the value of 2+2</h2>
Answer:
x=4
Step-by-step explanation:
32-4=28
28÷7= 4
x=4