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Pavlova-9 [17]
3 years ago
11

While a Guaranteed No-lapse Rider relieves the policyowner of the responsibility of monitoring the policy's cash value what is r

equired of him/her to make sure that the policy's no-lapse rider remains in effect?
Business
1 answer:
True [87]3 years ago
8 0

Pay the Premium in full and on time.

Explanation:

A No-lapse guarantee offers an insurance company commitment that a fixed life insurance policy is in place – even though, as long as the agreed retention premium is calculated at the required time, the cash value in the policies drops to zero or less than zero.

The No-Lapse insurance fee is the amount to be paid in order for the policy to remain in force unless the policy is carried out effectively for a certain number of years. The coverage will continue during the lapse period, even when the cash value drops to zero. The insurer provides the guarantee.

When the fee is not collected on the due date, it shall be deemed to have been default and the policyholder may forfeit his advantages. During that time, the fee can be charged without additional charges and the scheme remains in effect.

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Can someone help State the importance of assessing facial characteristics prior to carrying out lash and brow treatments.? Pleas
Mama L [17]
So that you can make the makup look correct and not to synthetic and ugly 
8 0
3 years ago
A​ company's production department was experiencing a high defect rate on the assembly​ line, which was slowing down production
Novosadov [1.4K]

Answer:

The correct answer to the following question is Unfavorable direct material cost variance .

Explanation:

Unfavorable variance can be defined as an accounting term which describes situations where the actual cost that a company would bear is more than the standard cost. This will alert a management that there will be fall in the expected profit of the company. In the given question , same situation will take place if the production manager decides to buy high grade materials which will cause more cost and thus will lead to decrease in profit.

6 0
4 years ago
A _____________ is a matrix or two-dimensional barcode first designed for the automotive industry in japan.?
valina [46]
The answer is: QR CODE
5 0
3 years ago
Treasury stock represents ______. (Check all that apply.) Multiple select question. stock issued in exchange for treasury bills
VashaNatasha [74]

Option 3. The amount paid for the stock reacquired and currently held in its treasury.

2) Option 6. Credit common stocks $180,000.

2) Option 8. Debit cash $660,000.

Solution 1:

Treasury Stock represents "the amount paid for stock reacquired and currently held in Treasury".

Hence the third option is correct.

Solution 2:

Price of share = (Common stock + paid-in capital in excess of par) / Number of shares issued.

= ($100,000 + $460,000) / 50000

= $11.2 per share.

Solution 3:

Journal entry will be:

Debit Cash......................$660,000

Credit Common stock....................................$180,000

Credit Paid in capital in excess of par...........$480,000

Hence third, sixth and last options are correct.

Treasury stock is often a form of reserved stock set aside to raise funds or pay for future investments. Companies may use treasury stock to pay for investment or acquisition of competing businesses.

<em>Your question is incomplete. please read below to find the full content.</em>

<em />

Learn more about Treasury stock at

brainly.com/question/8054097

#SPJ4

6 0
2 years ago
Beachballs, Inc., expects abnormally high earnings for the next three years due to the forecast of unusually hot summers. After
NNADVOKAT [17]

Answer: $36.50

Explanation:

The price she will be willing to be paid according to the Dividend Discount model is calculated by finding the present value of the future dividends and the terminal value.

Dividend year 1 = 1 * (1 + 20%) = $1.20

Dividend year 2 = 1.20 * (1 + 20%) = $1.44

Dividend year 3 = 1.44 * (1 + 15%) = $1.656

Terminal value = Dividend in year 4 / (required return - growth rate)

= (1.656 * (1 + 6%)) / ( 10% - 6%)

= $43.884

Price = \frac{1.2}{(1 + 0.10)} +  \frac{1.44}{(1 + 0.10)^{2} } +  \frac{1.656}{(1 + 0.10)^{3} } +  \frac{43.884}{(1 + 0.10)^{3} }\\\\= 36.4959\\\\= 36.50

= $36.50

6 0
3 years ago
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