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Pavlova-9 [17]
2 years ago
11

While a Guaranteed No-lapse Rider relieves the policyowner of the responsibility of monitoring the policy's cash value what is r

equired of him/her to make sure that the policy's no-lapse rider remains in effect?
Business
1 answer:
True [87]2 years ago
8 0

Pay the Premium in full and on time.

Explanation:

A No-lapse guarantee offers an insurance company commitment that a fixed life insurance policy is in place – even though, as long as the agreed retention premium is calculated at the required time, the cash value in the policies drops to zero or less than zero.

The No-Lapse insurance fee is the amount to be paid in order for the policy to remain in force unless the policy is carried out effectively for a certain number of years. The coverage will continue during the lapse period, even when the cash value drops to zero. The insurer provides the guarantee.

When the fee is not collected on the due date, it shall be deemed to have been default and the policyholder may forfeit his advantages. During that time, the fee can be charged without additional charges and the scheme remains in effect.

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Justin, a human resources manager for xyz company, commits 20% of this year's budget to develop a new program for valuing divers
rewona [7]
Human Resource Manager
4 0
3 years ago
Starling Co. manufactures one product with a selling price of $18 and variable cost of $12. Starling’s total annual fixed costs
nikitadnepr [17]

The number of units that Starling Co. sold was 11200

<u>Explanation:</u>

Given -

Operating income = $28,800

Fixed cost = $38,400

Selling price of one unit = $12

Variable cost = $12

Number of units sold, n = ?

Contribution  margin per unit = $18 - $12

                                                 = $6

n = \frac{operating income + fixed cost}{contribution margin per unit}

n = \frac{28800 + 38400}{6} \\\\n = \frac{67200}{6} \\\\n = 11200

Therefore, number of units that Starling Co. sold was 11200

7 0
3 years ago
In 2013, Chandler Company had net credit sales of $1,125,000. On January 1, 2013, Allowance for Doubtful Accounts had a credit b
mezya [45]

Answer:

Debit : Bad Debts = $33,000

Credit : Allowance for doubtful debts = $33,000

Explanation:

The question states that the allowance for doubtful debts are expected to be 10% of the accounts receivables. As at 31 December, accounts receivables is $330,000

This means that the allowance for doubtful debts is it is: $330,000 x 10%= $33,000

An account for allowance for doubtful debts is a contra account created, predicting that certain debtors will not be able to pay for the goods and services they purchased. The 10% may be based on historical experiences. Doubtful debts aren’t officially uncollectible, it is simply an estimation made, but bad debts are, where you have officially written off a certain accounts receivable as uncollectible.

An allowance for doubtful debts is recorded in the balance sheet, directly under accounts receivables. Bad debts are recorded as an expense in the income statement.

The entry to record the above transaction is:

Debit : Bad Debts = $33,000

Credit : Allowance for doubtful debts = $33,000

When the amount is officially declared uncollectible, the allowance for doubtful debts account will be debited and the accounts receivables account will be credited.

3 0
3 years ago
A company purchased land for $100,000 cash. Accrued real estate taxes on the land, $2,000, and real estate taxes on the land for
zheka24 [161]

Answer:

$118,000

Explanation:

We know the purchase price of land = $100,000

Also any kind of brokerage or commission is added to such cost as it is part of acquisition and one time expense, thus capital in nature.

Thus, $8,000 paid as brokerage will be added.

Also the one time expense in the capital nature being the demolishing expense will be added to cost.

Thus, net cost of land = $100,000 + $8,000 + $10,000 = $118,000

Some of the salvage sold results in an income for the company, and that shall form part of income statement, and has nothing to do with cost of land.

Thus, net historical cost = $118,000

7 0
3 years ago
Way Corporation disposed of the following tangible personal property assets in the current year. Assume that the delivery truck
Dvinal [7]

Answer:

ASSET   ORIGINAL BASIS   RATE   PROPORTION   DEPRECIATION

Furniture     $60,000              8.93%         50%                           $2679

Machinery   $72,000              10.93%       12.5%                         $983.70

Truck           $20,000              19.20%         50%                         $1920

Machinery  $280,000             7.55%        62.5%                      $48,212.50

Computer    $80,000                                  50%                    <u>         -           </u>

TOTAL                                                                                    <u>   $53,795.20</u>

Explanation:

Based on the MARCS depreciation table rates:

For a 7-year recovery period under the Half-Year (HY) Convention, in the 5th year rate = 8.93%

For a 7-year recovery period under the Mid-Quarter (MQ) Convention, purchased during the first quarter, in the 4th year rate = 10.93%

For a 5-year recovery period under the Half-Year (HY) Convention, in the 3rd year rate = 19.20%

For a 7-year recovery period under the Mid-Quarter (MQ) Convention, purchased during the fourth quarter, in the 2nd year rate = 27.55%

For disposal during a year,

Under the Half-year convention. The depreciation amount would be half i.e 50% of the total depreciation for the year

Under the Mid-quarter convention the percentage applied to the full year disposal is

12.5% for First Quarter

37.5% for Second Quarter

62.5% for Third Quarter

87.5% for Fourth Quarter

5 0
3 years ago
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