If 1 pint equals 2 cups then 5 pints equals 10 cups
Because 5 times 2 equals 10. Hope this helps.
A delightful question.
I think I have it.
The number is 22 .
Its factors are 1, 2, 11, and 22 .
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Answer:</h3>
A. 28
<h3>
Step-by-step explanation:</h3>
We assume m is the measure of the marked unknown angles: ∠BZY ≅ ∠BZA
(5x +3)° = (2x +18)°
Divide by ° and subtract 2x+3:
... 3x = 15
... x = 5
Then ∠BZA = (2·5 +18)° = m = 28°
Answer:
below
Step-by-step explanation:
5x - 3y > 30
-3y > -5x + 30 divide by negative switches the inequality
y < 5/3x - 10 y is less than 5/3x - 10 so shade below the line
