Answer:
Nursery Supplies at year-end 76,000,000
Gain on investment 12,000,000
Explanation:
Considering is considered a long-term investment for Florists International and the percentage of owership is significant we use equity method.
value of the investment at year end:
begining 67,000,000
income 60,000,000 x 20% = 12,000,000
cash dividends 10,000,000 shares x 1.5 x 20% = (3,000,000)
ending investment 76,000,000
1. After multiple rounds of layoffs, a plastics processing plant goes into bankruptcy because it has failed to keep up with technological developments in the field. It is called dissolution.
2. Crisis is a multinational conglomerate facing a turbulent environment embarks on a cost-cutting campaign instead of spinning off companies and divisions that are no longer in line with the company’s core competencies.
3. Blinded is a college president doesn’t recognize that the availability of free online education is going to dramatically reduce the number of people who are willing to pay for a college degree.
Explanation:
Dissolution is the final phase of liquidation, the closure of a company, and the transfer of the property and assets of the company. Relationship breakup is the first of two phases of relationship termination.
For example, marriage breakdown. It is the last winding-up process of corporate law.
There are several types of circumstances where disaster conditions can be considered. Which include: social disturbance or interruption of the family, as stated at the outset of the lesson. Natural hazards -floods, tornados, storm events, explosions and other natural phenomena incident.
Answer:
A)
Explanation:
Research studies indicate that U.S. producers gain more from tariffs than U.S. consumers lose. This is mostly because many intermediaries must pay various different tariffs including the consumer which all go to the producers, and therefore allowing the producers to gain more from the tariffs that the U.S. consumers will spend paying them.
This is what i found Answer 1
Risk-Adjusted Asset Base
The calculation of the risk-adjusted asset base for a bank is as below-
Risk-adjusted asset = (Cash × 0%) + (municipal security × 20%) + (home mortgages × 50%) + (Commercial loans × 100%)
= (20 × 0%) + (100 × 20%) + (500 × 50%) + (300$ × 100%)
= 0 + 20 + 250 + 300
= $570 million
The outcome shows that the risk-adjusted or weighted asset based for the bank will be $570 million.
Tier1 and Tier 2 Capital:
If the bank has no off-balance sheet activity then minimum required level of Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital will be-
Tier 1 capital = Risk-weighted asset × 4%
= $570 × 4%
= $22.8 million
Tier 2 capital = Maximum of 1.25% of risk-weighted asset
= $570 × 1.25%
= $7.125 million
Total capital = $22.8 + $7.125 => $29.925 million
The outcomes indicate that the minimum required level of Tier1 and Tier
2 capital is $22.8 million and $7.125 million for the bank.
Bank Comply with Capital Requirements:
If the bank has Tier 1 capital of $25 million and Tier 2 capital of $15
million then it will comply with its capital requirements of $29.925
million. It is because in this situation, total capital of bank is $37
million that is higher than the above calculated capital of $29.925
million.
Impact of off-Balance Sheet Activities on Capital Requirements
The addition of off-balance sheet activities might increase the capital
requirement of the bank. It is because an off-balance sheet items is a
financial contract that can create credit loss for the company due to
credit risk. So, in case of adding off-balance sheet activities, a bank
will require more capital to cover credit loss. Along with this, it can
also increase the minimum ratio of capital to risk-weighted assets from
8% and in that situation; the bank will need more capital (Carmichael
& Graham, 2012).
Answer 2
Probability of Repayment and Risk Premium
A).
If the rate on a one-year treasury bill is 6% and in case of loan
default, no payments are expected on financial securities then the
probability of repayment and the risk premium on 1 year AA-rated loan
yielding 9 percent will be-
Probability of Repayment:
The following formula can be useful to determine probability of repayment.
P = (1 + I) / (1 + k)
Where,
I = 6%
k = 9%
Then, ...you have $2.19 left :D
Answer:
B. consumption bundles
Explanation:
Customer preference is defined as the likes and dislikes that a customer has that determines his choice in making purchases.
For exams a customer may want to buy shoes that are black in colour, but shoes that are yellow in colour are ignored.
Preferences of buyers are independent not prices and income level.
Rather it is dependent on consumption bundle. That is the set of goods that will give highest satisfaction to the buyer.
