Answer:
0.07776, 0.3456,0.08704
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that a new surgical procedure is said to be successful 60% of the time
Let X be the no of successes
Then X has only two outcomes and each trial is independent of the other
Hence X is binomial with p = prob of success in a single trial = 0.60
n = Number of operations performed = 5
Prob that
a) all five operations are successful =
(b) exactly three are successful
=
(c) less than two are successful
Answer:
m = -18
Step-by-step explanation:
<u>Step 1: Combine like terms</u>
-8 = -m + 2m + 10
-8 = m + 10
<u>Step 2: Subtract 10 from both sides</u>
-8 - 10 = m + 10 - 10
-18 = m
Answer: m = -18
Answer:
To break even it must be molded 1280 handles weekly.
The profit if 1500 handles are produced and sold is $440
Step-by-step explanation:
To break even, the amount of total cost must be the same as the amount of revenues.
Total Cost is Fixed cost plus unitary variable cost multiplied by the produce quantity.
Total cost= FC + vc*Q
Where
FC=Fixed cost
vc=unitary variable cos
Q=produce quantity
Revenue= Price * Q
Break even FC + vc*Q=Price * Q
Isolating Q
FC=(Price * Q)-(vc*Q)
FC=(Price-vc) * Q
Q= FC/(Price-vc)
Q= $2560/($3.00-$1.00)=1280
If we sold 1500 handles
Profit = Revenue- Total cost =(Price * Q)-(FC + vc*Q)
P=$3.00 *1500-$2560 - $1.00*1500=
P=$4500-$2560-$1500=440
3/2 = 6
6/4= 6/40= 6 .999= ~ 7
Answer:
No
Step-by-step explanation:
The sum of the digits is 40 which is not divisible by 9, so it is not divisible by 9
