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vekshin1
3 years ago
12

A company has prepared the operating budget and the cash budget and is now preparing the budgeted balance sheet. The balance of

Accounts Receivable can be obtained from the ________.
Business
1 answer:
GrogVix [38]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

b) Schedule of cash receipts from customers

Explanation:

Selling and administrative expenses budget cannot provide the balance of an asset account. Therefore, option A is wrong.

Inventory, purchases, and cost of goods sold budget provide the information of inventory used and purchase of raw materials. Therefore, option C is wrong.

Capital expenditures budget provides non-correct related information. Therefore, option D is wrong.

As the company collects money from customers (Accounts Receivable), therefore, we can find it from the schedule of cash receipts from customers. Therefore, option B is the answer.

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Dancer wasn't thinking question because he needed things to do
4 0
2 years ago
Amy convenes a meeting to rethink the organizational structure to avoid being beat to the market by a competitor again. Based on
Natalija [7]

Amy should reduce hierarchy if she wants to avoid being beaten by competitors.

A reduction of hierarchy will realign the company to achieve its goals faster than operating with a formalized hierarchy. This restructuring or delayering is known as empowerment.

The advantages that Amy will achieve by delayering or reducing hierarchy include:

  • Simplifying the organization's management structures
  • Reducing its bureaucracy
  • Cutting its communication paths
  • Speeding up decision-making
  • Pushing responsibility down to lower organizational levels (through empowerment).

Thus, Amy should rethink the organizational structure by reducing the hierarchy, making the decision-making process accessible.

Learn more: brainly.com/question/10849707

6 0
2 years ago
Wisteria Co. produces snowboards and uses a standard cost system. Variable overhead is applied using direct labor hours. Standar
Ket [755]

Answer:

Variable overhead rate variance = $2,870 favorable

Explanation:

Variable overhead rate variance is the difference between the standard cost allowed for variable production overhead and the actual variable cost incurred.

This computed as follows:

                                                                                    $

17,130 hours should have cost ( 17,130 ×7.20)      123336

but did cost                                                            <u>120,466</u>

Variable overhead rate variance                           <u>  2870 </u> Favorable

Variable overhead rate variance = $2,870              

6 0
3 years ago
The use of simulation to create an aggregate plan:
12345 [234]

Answer:

Answer is option b i.e. will produce a plan that may not be the best plan.

Explanation:

Simulation is the technique used to create an artificial environment that is similar to the real-life situation to study various problems and how to tackle them. However, it is not the full proof plan which means it is based on certain probability and chances that a certain situation might arise. Many times situations are not as planned and here we cannot solely depend on the solution that we have learned during the simulation process. Therefore, the simulation will provide us with a plan that may or may not be the best plan.

6 0
3 years ago
Consider an offer to supply 5 paintings per year to an art gallery in Rome for the next five years. The contract is exclusive, m
IceJOKER [234]

Answer:

I will accept the offer if the price per painting is $56,312.41 or higher.

Explanation:

We will calculate the present value of the other option which is, selling our painting as a freelancer.

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 315,000.00

time 5

rate 0.2

315000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.2)^{-5} }{0.2} = PV\\

PV $942,042.8241

Now, we subtract the signing bonus of 100,000

942,042.83 - 100,000 = 842,042.83

And solve for the annual proceeds from the painting we need to equalize the opportunity cost:

PV \div \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = C\\

PV 842,042.83

time 5

rate 0.2

842042.83 \div \frac{1-(1+0.2)^{-5} }{0.2} = C\\

C  $ 281,562.03

Now, we divide by the 5 painting per year:

$281,562.03 per year / 5 painting per year = $56,312.41

3 0
3 years ago
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