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Goshia [24]
3 years ago
7

Please help. What's the answer???

Mathematics
1 answer:
valentinak56 [21]3 years ago
6 0
I believe it is c. e. and f.
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Find the distance between PQ. P(3,4) and Q(6,8) <br><br><br> 25<br> 20<br> 15<br> 5
TEA [102]
The answer is five because if you go for -3 that’s one in 8-6 is two and if you add one and three that’s for sure the only one you need is five and that would be just make no sense at all
3 0
3 years ago
How do you express sin x + cos x in terms of sine only?
frez [133]

Answer:

\sin x + \sqrt{1-\sin^2x}

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: sin x + cos x

To change the given trigonometry expression in term of sine only.

Trigonometry identity:-

  • \sin^2x+\cos^2x=1
  • \cos x=\sqrt{1-\sin^2x}

Expression: \sin x+\cos x

We get rid of cos x from expression and write as sine form.

Expression: \sin x + \sqrt{1-\sin^2x}        \because \cos x=\sqrt{1-\sin^2x}

Hence, The final expression is only sine function.

4 0
3 years ago
PLEASE!!!!!!!!!! HELP NEEDED QUICK
Triss [41]
We have to find the expected value for the PlayBall lottery. 
The price of the ticket = $1
Prize amount = $250
If a player wins, he will be winning $249 as the price is not paid back along with the prize amount. He is spending $1, getting back $250, so the net amount he is getting back is $249.

Now we have to find the probability of winning and losing.

Number of letters from A to T = 20
Number of digits from 0 to 9 = 10

Probability of picking up the same letter that was picked on that day = 1/20
Probability of picking up the same number that was picked on that day = 1/10

Thus, the Probability of picking up the same letter and same number that was picked on that day = \frac{1}{20}* \frac{1}{10}= \frac{1}{200}

Thus, the probability of winning = 1/200

The probability of losing = 1- \frac{1}{200}=\frac{199}{200}

The expected value E for the PlayBall lottery will be:

E= \frac{1}{200}(249)- \frac{199}{200}(1) \\  \\ &#10;E= \frac{1}{4}  \\  \\ &#10;E=0.25

Thus, the option C gives the correct answer
4 0
3 years ago
100 point to the first correct answer
miss Akunina [59]

Answer:

X ~ B(n, p)

Given: X ~ B(2, 5/17)

⇒  n = 2

⇒  p = 5/17

Binomial distribution formula:

\sf P(X = x) = nC_x (1-p)^{(n-x)}p^x

As n = 2, calculate P(X = 0), P(X = 1) and P(X = 2):

\sf P(X = 0) = 2C0 (\frac{12}{17})^{(2-0)}(\frac{5}{17})^0=\dfrac{144}{289}}

\sf P(X = 1) = 2C1 (\frac{12}{17})^{(2-1)}(\frac{5}{17})^1=\dfrac{120}{289}}

\sf P(X = 2) = 2C2 (\frac{12}{17})^{(2-2)}(\frac{5}{17})^2=\dfrac{25}{289}}

**Probability Distribution Table attached**

5 0
2 years ago
The short sides of a rectangle are 2 inches. The long sides of the same rectangle are three less than an unknown number of inche
Trava [24]

Answer:

11

Step-by-step explanation:

Area = LW

We know that the w = 2

We are told that the L (length) is three less than an unknown number so that mean L = (x - 3)

We are then told that the area = 22 square inches.

Area = LW

22 = (x - 3)2

Now solve for x

22 = (x - 3)2

Distribute the 2

22 = 2x - 6

22 + 6 = 2x

28 = 2x

28 / 2 = 2x / 2

14 = x

x = 14

Now take 14 and subtract 3

14 - 3 = 11

Unknown number = 11

Area  = LW

L = 11

W = 2

Area = 22

11 * 2 = 22

7 0
3 years ago
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