Is the inverse of a function always a function? explain your answer please

1 answer:

6 0

No, i don't think so

In a function, one value of x is only assigned to one value of y

It's okay if you can get the same y value from two x value, but that mean that inverse can't be a function.

y = x^2 is a function

but inverse y = +/- √x is not

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