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Marta_Voda [28]
3 years ago
11

Benton Engineering Services Company incurred the following during 2016 Direct labor $94,000 Overhead 126,000 Selling expenses 11

2,000 Administrative expenses 102,000 Calculate prime cost and conversion cost for Benton Engineering Services Company during 2016.
Business
1 answer:
Galina-37 [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Prime cost = $94,000

<em>Conversion cost</em> =  $135,400.

Explanation:

<em>Prime cost is the addition of direct material cost , direct labor cost and direct expenses.</em>

<em>Conversion cost is the cost of converting raw materials into finished product. It s the sum of direct labour cost and production overheads.</em>

For Bento Engineering,

<em>Prime cost = direct labour cost  (since no figure is given for direct material and direct expenses.)</em>

Prime cost = $94,000

Conversion cost = Direct labour cost + overheads

<em>Conversion cost</em> = $94,000 + 126,000

                          =  $135,400.

Prime cost = $94,000

<em>Conversion cost</em> =  $135,400.

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Answer:

The correct answer is (e)

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3 years ago
While traveling on a commercial bus line, a passenger was injured when some luggage fell on him. As required by applicable state
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Answer: See explanation

Explanation:

In a situation whereby the attorney of the passenger tried resolving the dispute in good faith, then the bus company must be ordered by the court to produce the report as well as the payment of reasonable cost that was incurred in making the motion.

It should however be noted that such cost may not be awarded when the movant had filed the motion before obtaining the disclosure in good faith. Also, the cost with be given when the nondisclosure response of the opposing party was justified.

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3 years ago
A company is selling bonds with a face value of $1,000 to raise money for a plant expansion. The bonds pay a coupon rate of 4% p
Ksivusya [100]

Answer:

10.26%

Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-

Net sales = $760

Face value of bonds = $1,000

Coupon rate = 4% = $1,000 × 4 ÷ 100

= 40

N = Number of Years = 5 annually = semiannually = 5 × 2

= 10 years

We assume, interest rate = 10% = 0.10

P = Coupon Rate ÷ 2 × (PVIFA,Interest Rate ÷ 2%,No. of Years) + Future Value(PVIF,Interest Rate ÷ 2%, No. of Years)

=$40 ÷ 2 × [1 - 1 ÷ (1 + Interest Rate)N] ÷ Interest Rate + Future Value[1 ÷ (1 + Interest Rate) × N]

=$40 ÷ 2 × [1-1 ÷ (1 + 0.10 ÷ 2)^10] ÷ 0.05 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ (1 + 0.10 ÷ 2)^10]

=$20 × [1 - 1 ÷ (1.05)^10] ÷ 0.05 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ (1.05)^10]

=$20 × [1 -1 ÷ 1.6288946] ÷ 0.05 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ 1.6288946]

= 420 × 7.72173 + $1,000 × 0.613913

= $154.4346 + $613.913

= $768.3476

= $768.35

But the given value is 760, so we assume interest rate = 11%

=$40 ÷ 2 × [1-1 ÷ (1 + Interest Rate)^N] ÷ Interest Rate + Future Value[1 ÷ (1 + Interest Rate)^N]

= $40 ÷ 2 × [1 - 1 ÷(1 + 0.11 ÷ 2)^10] ÷ 0.055 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ (1 + 0.11 ÷ 2)^10]

= $20 × [1 - 1 ÷ (1.055)^10] ÷ 0.055 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ (1.055)^10]

= $20 × [1 - 1 ÷ 1.70814446] ÷ 0.055 + $1000 × [1 ÷ 1.70814446]

= $20 × 7.5376255 + $1,000 × 0.5854306

= $150.75 + $585.43

= $736.18

At the Interest rate of 10% the price is more than $760 and at the Interest rate of 1% the price is less than $760. So the required rate lies in between 10% to 11%.

So required rate  

Yield To Maturity = Lower Interest Rate + (Difference Between Interest Rate) × Higher Price - Received Price ÷ Higher Price - Lower Price

= 1 0+( 11 - 10) × $768.35 - $760 ÷ $768.35 - $736.18

= 10 + 1 × $8.35 ÷ $32.17

= 10 + 0.26

= 10.26%

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Answer:

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Explanation:

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As such, if On January​ 1, the law firm paid $ 7 comma 700 for seven months of advertising, this will be recognized as the expense for the two months ending February 28 under the cash basis.

6 0
3 years ago
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