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3 years ago

2(1-4)-3(2+1) equals what

Mathematics

2 answers:

AysviL [449]3 years ago

6 0

It would be -15 as the answer

Firdavs [7]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

2(1-4)-3(2+1)= -15

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Select the correct answer.

MatroZZZ [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

x+y=34 (add the seperate hours together to get the total amount of hours)

10x+15y=410 (multiply the money made each hour by the hours worked and add them together to get the amount of money joy made)

5 0

3 years ago

You have a normal model. The population mean is 500 and standard deviation is 100. Which of the following options would be the c

mihalych1998 [28]

Answer:

a. N(500, 100)

Step-by-step explanation:

The normal probability distribution, with mean M and standard deviation S, can be represented in the following notation.

N(M,S).

In this problem, we have that:

Mean = 500

Standard deviation = 100

Which of the following options would be the correct way to represent the information?

a. N(500, 100)

7 0

4 years ago

Use the quotient of negative numbers:

strojnjashka [21]

If you divide negative by positive it will be negative.
If you divide positive by negative it will be negative.
If you divide 2 negatives you get a positive.
I hope this helps :)

4 0

4 years ago

The number of accidents on a certain section of I-40 averages 4 accidents per weekday independent across weekdays. Assuming the

AysviL [449]

Answer:

1.83% probability there are no car accidents on that stretch on Monday

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

$\mu$ is the mean in the given time interval.

The number of accidents on a certain section of I-40 averages 4 accidents per weekday independent across weekdays.

This means that $\mu = 4$

What is the probability there are no car accidents on that stretch on Monday?

This is P(X = 0).

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

$P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-4}*(4)^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.0183$

1.83% probability there are no car accidents on that stretch on Monday

5 0

3 years ago

Pls help

KATRIN_1 [288]

Answer:

169.04 in² (nearest hundredth)

Step-by-step explanation:

Surface area of a cone = $\pi$ r² + $\pi$ r $l$

(where r = radius of the base and $l$ = slant height)

Given slant height $l$ = 10 and surface area = 188.5

Surface area = $\pi$ r² + $\pi$ r $l$

188.5 = $\pi$ r² + 10 $\pi$ r

$\pi$ r² + 10 $\pi$ r - 188.5 = 0

r = $\frac{-10\pi +\sqrt{(10\pi )^2-(4\times\pi \times-188.5)} }{2\pi }$ = 4.219621117...

Volume of a cone = (1/3) $\pi$ r²h

(where r = radius of the base and h = height)

We need to find an expression for h in terms of $l$ using Pythagoras' Theorem a² + b² = c², where a = radius, b = height and c = slant height

r² + h² = $l$ ²

h² = $l$ ² - r²

h = √( $l$ ² - r²)

Therefore, substituting found expression for h:

volume of a cone = (1/3) $\pi$ r²√( $l$ ² - r²)

Given slant height $l$ = 10 and r = 4.219621117...

volume = 169.0431969... = 169.04 in² (nearest hundredth)

5 0

2 years ago

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