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Nataly_w [17]
2 years ago
8

Why do most economists believe that it is important for a country’s central bank be independent of the rest of the country’s cen

tral government? What was the most recent US Federal Reserve's policy-making Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC) report?
Business
1 answer:
ohaa [14]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

For economists is important to avoid political interferance in the monetary policy. Populist governments often use the creation of money to justify their political programs, causing inflation and distortions on the market.

In the last report of FOMC is highlighted the behaviour of market labour and the lower expectations of inflation.

Explanation:

There are two tools commonly used in political economy to finance government programs: taxation and paper currency print. When the central bank is not independent, the government has an incentive to print money to fund their programs, causing inflation. In economic science has been demonstrated that inflation is always caused by monetary phenomena.

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What is a good good excuse to give your Professor for not passing homework in in time because your sick and have no access to in
In-s [12.5K]

Answer:

Dear Professor, I just wanted to let you known I failed my homework because, after I moved I have no access to the internet. I am very sorry.

5 0
3 years ago
It takes 12 units of resources to produce 100 pounds of silk. It takes 13 units to produce 115 pounds of silk and 15 units to pr
stealth61 [152]

Because the additional output is produced with an increasing input in the production signals an example of <u>diminishing returns</u> to specialization.

<h3>What is a diminishing returns?</h3>

A diminishing returns to specialization is known to occurs if more units of resources are required to produce each additional unit.

In conclusion, the additional output which is produced with an increasing input in the production is an example of <u>diminishing returns</u> to specialization.

Read more about diminishing returns

<em>brainly.com/question/14966527</em>

5 0
2 years ago
The fixed budget indicates sales of $50,000. actual sales were $55,000. The variance is?
Anna007 [38]

The fixed budget indicates sales of $50,000. actual sales were $55,000. The variance is $5,000 favorable.

The variance is a measure of variability. it's far calculated by taking the average of squared deviations from the mean. Variance tells you the diploma of unfold in your information set. The more unfold the data, the larger the variance is in relation to the mean.

In opportunity idea and information, variance is the expectation of the squared deviation of a random variable from its populace imply or sample suggest. Variance is a measure of dispersion, that means it's far a degree of the way a long way a fixed of numbers is spread out from their average price.

Not like variety and interquartile range, variance is a measure of dispersion that takes into consideration the unfold of all information points in a data set. It is the degree of dispersion the most often used, in conjunction with the standard deviation, that is truly the rectangular root of the variance.

Learn more about variance here brainly.com/question/15858152

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5 0
1 year ago
Candice bought a shipment of jeans to sell at her store for $20 each. She'd
rusak2 [61]

Answer:

D. $28

Explanation:

Given the following data;

Cost price = $20

Markup = 40%

To find the selling price;

Markup price = 40/100 * 20

Markup price = 800/100

Markup price = $8

Next, we would add the markup to the cost price;

Selling price = markup price + cost price

Selling price = 8 + 20

Selling price = $28

Therefore, the price of each pair of jeans is $28.

6 0
3 years ago
You want to create a portfolio equally as risky as the market, and you have $500,000 to invest. Information about the possible i
Zarrin [17]

Answer:

Let investment in C = $x

Hence, investment in risk free asset = 500,000 - (139,000+141,000+x) = $220 - $x

1 = (139,000/500,000*0.84)+(141,000/500,000*1.29)+(x/500,000*1.44)+(220,000-x)/500,000*0 [Beta of market=1 ;Beta of risk-free assets=0]

1 = 0.23352+0.36378 + (x/500,000*1.44)

1 = 0.5973 + (x/500,000*1.44)

x = (1 - 0.5973)*500,000/1.44

x = 0.4027*347222.22

x = 139826.387994

x = $139,826.39

investment in C = $139,826.39

Hence, investment in risk free asset = $(220,000-x)  = $220,000 - $139,826.39

Investment in risk free asset = $80,173.61

8 0
2 years ago
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