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Ghella [55]
3 years ago
15

EXPLAIN THE SECOND PART.......

Mathematics
1 answer:
alexdok [17]3 years ago
6 0
\tan^2\theta-\sin^2\theta=\dfrac{\sin^2\theta}{\cos^2\theta}-\sin^2\theta
=\sin^2\theta\left(\dfrac1{\cos^2\theta}-1\right)
=\sin^2\theta(\sec^2\theta-1)
=\sin^2\theta\tan^2\theta

Now if 0^\circ, then both \sin\theta>0 and \tan\theta>0. Adding two positive numbers gives another positive number, so \tan\theta+\sin\theta>0. Why this is useful will be apparent shortly.

Back to the identity:

\tan^2\theta-\sin^2\theta=\tan^2\theta\sin^2\theta

Factorizing the left hand side, we have

(\tan\theta-\sin\theta)(\tan\theta+\sin\theta)=\tan^2\theta\sin^2\theta

Now, any number squared will be positive, which means the right hand side is necessarily greater than 0.

We showed earlier that \tan\theta+\sin\theta>0. So we understand that we have

\underbrace{(\tan\theta-\sin\theta)}_?\underbrace{(\tan\theta+\sin\theta)}_+=\underbrace{\tan^2\theta\sin^2\theta}_+

The only way to multiply a number by a positive number to get yet another positive number is to have the first number also be positive, which means

\tan\theta-\sin\theta>0

and from this it follows that

\tan\theta>\sin\theta

in the provided region.
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If lines m and n are parallel, and 5 measures 120o, which is the measure of 3?
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