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vovangra [49]
3 years ago
11

Sebastian Motors is a family-owned car dealership with two locations in central France. The car dealership markets BMWs and Mini

Coopers and provides servicing. Recently, Sebastian Motors has been impacted by the economic climate in the ________ ,which has suffered recently due to a weakening of the currency and the poor financial conditions of several member countries including Portugal, Italy, Greece, and Spain—affectionately known as the PIGS of the Common Market
Business
1 answer:
docker41 [41]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: European union              

Explanation: The European union is the joint union organisation of 28 European countries.

In the given case, Sebastian motors has been affected by the factor of external environment. In the year 2018, European union evidenced a major downfall in currency due to the brexit deal from England.

Hence from the above we can conclude that the correct answer is European union.

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According to a summary of the payroll of Guthrie Co., $560,000 was subject to the 6.0% social security tax and the 1.5% Medicare
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]

Answer and Explanation:

a. The computation of an employer's payroll taxes is shown below:-

Employer's payroll taxes =  Social Security tax payable + Medicare tax payable + State Unemployment tax payable + Federal Unemployment tax payable

= ($560,000 × 6%) + ($560,000 × 1.5%) + ($60,000 × 0.6%) + ($60,000 × 0.6%)

= $33,600 + $8,400 + $3,240 + $360

= $45,600

b. The Journal entry is shown below:-

Payroll tax expense $ Dr, $45,600    -

     To Social Security tax payable $33,600

     To Medicare tax payable $8,400

     To State Unemployment tax payable $3,240  

    To Federal Unemployment tax payable $360

(Being accrual of payroll taxes is recorded)

5 0
3 years ago
If the market maker is willing to purchase the entire block of 1,500 shares from Amara and, from that block, resell 1,000 shares
NeTakaya

Answer:

$1,300

Explanation:

Calculation to determine what the market maker’s net profit from Brent’s transaction

First step is to calculate the bid-ask spread using this formula

Bid-ask spread=Ask price-Bid price

Let plug in the formula

Bid-ask spread=$31.80-$30.50

Bid-ask spread=$1.30

Now let calculate the Net profit

Using this formula

Net profit=Bid-ask spread*Shares resell

Net profit=$1.3 x 1000 shares

Net profit=$1,300

Therefore the market maker’s net profit from Brent’s transaction will be $1,300

3 0
3 years ago
A group of companies bound together to fix prices is called...?
irina1246 [14]
That's a 'cartel'.  It's illegal in the US.  It's also, mean, nasty, and not fair.
7 0
3 years ago
Assume that your firm consists of Division 1 (40 percent of the firm) and Division 2 (60 percent of the firm). The capital struc
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

Explanation:

Before starting, we need to convert unlevered beta into levered beta:

Levered beta of Division 1: 1.2 x ( 1 + (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.38

Leverage beta of Division 2: 1.46 x ( 1+ (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.679

Then, we start step by step as below:

First, using the CAPM model: Cost of equity = risk-free rate of return +  beta *(Market Rate of Return – Risk-free Rate of Return) , we find the cost of equity for Division 1 and Division 2.

  - Division 1's cost of Equity = 4% + 1.38 x( 12% -4%) = 15.04%

  - Division 2's cost of equity = 4% + 1.46 x (12% - 4%) = 17.432%

Second, determine the post-tax cost of debt applied for both Division: 6% x (1-tax rate) = 6% x (1 -40%) = 3.60%

Third, calculate the WACC for each Division:

  - Division 1's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 15.04% = 11.752%;

  - Division 2's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 17.432% = 14.6656%;

Finally, compare the WACC between the two Division:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Rita owns a sole proprietorship in which she works as a management consultant. She maintains an office in her home (500 square f
jekas [21]

Answer:

a) $7,400

b)$60,000

Explanation:

First, we need to complete the question

a) What is Rita's home office deduction for the current year?

b) What is Rita's AGI for the year?

Solution

a) Rita's Home Office Deduction for the Current Year

Description                                                        Amount ($)

Gross Income                                                   13,000

Subtract: Her Business Expenses                    (5,600)

The balance                                                        7,400

Subtract: Expenses under 1st Tier                     (6,700)

(Interest 5,100 + taxes 1,600)

Balance                                                                   700

Subtract: Expenses unde 2nd Tier                        (700)

($800 Operating Expernses before limit)

Balance                                                                    0

Subtract: Expenses under 3rd Tier                         (0)

1,600 Depreciation before limit

<u>Net income from Rita's Business                              0</u>

The Deduction allowed Rita is $7,400 a totla of the home office expenses and the home operating expenses

Note that there was no expense subtracted for the Tier 3 expenses this is because Rita's income had reduced to $0 and there was nothing to subtract from

B)  What is Rita's AGI for the year?

The AGI is the Rita's reported AGI of $60,000 + $0 which is the net calculated income from her business. So her AGI remains $60,000.

6 0
3 years ago
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