All categories

3 years ago

WILL GIVE BRAINLYEST

Mathematics

1 answer:

arlik [135]3 years ago

8 0

1) regular cost for one person is: 32 ×1 = $32

for X people it would be 32X as you should times by the number of people.

= 32x

2)1 person is (20×1) + 84

20 + 84 = $104

for X people it would be 20x + 84

= 20x + 84

You might be interested in

You've randomly surveyed some students in your science class to find the number of hours per week they study. what is the mean,

seropon [69]

D. 5.45 hrs based on your sample

8 0

3 years ago

The Cia estimates the world population is growing at a rate of 1.167% each year.the world population for 2007 was about 6.6 bill

labwork [276]

Hcvnmbvcchjjhhfgcxgjjbxxghnkn8

5 0

3 years ago

Jim writes 10^4 words every day how many words does he writes in 10^3 days?

Alchen [17]

1,000 words

10^4=10,000
10^3=1,000

7 0

3 years ago

Plss help i’ll give brainliest thank you!

Snowcat [4.5K]

Answer:

option a. 3

...........

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A real estate agent has 19 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a

netineya [11]

Answer:

$P(X \geq 5)=1-P(X$

We can find the individual probabilities:

$P(X=0)=(19C0)(0.3)^0 (1-0.3)^{19-0}=0.00114$

$P(X=1)=(19C1)(0.3)^1 (1-0.3)^{19-1}=0.0092$

$P(X=2)=(19C2)(0.3)^2 (1-0.3)^{19-2}=0.0358$

$P(X=3)=(19C3)(0.3)^3 (1-0.3)^{19-3}=0.0869$

$P(X=4)=(19C4)(0.3)^4 (1-0.3)^{19-4}=0.1491$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 5) = 1-[0.00114+0.009282+0.0358+0.0869+0.149]= 0.7178$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=19, p=0.3)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

And we want to find this probability:

$P(X \geq 5)$

And we can use the complement rule:

$P(X \geq 5)=1-P(X$

We can find the individual probabilities:

$P(X=0)=(19C0)(0.3)^0 (1-0.3)^{19-0}=0.00114$

$P(X=1)=(19C1)(0.3)^1 (1-0.3)^{19-1}=0.0092$

$P(X=2)=(19C2)(0.3)^2 (1-0.3)^{19-2}=0.0358$

$P(X=3)=(19C3)(0.3)^3 (1-0.3)^{19-3}=0.0869$

$P(X=4)=(19C4)(0.3)^4 (1-0.3)^{19-4}=0.1491$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 5) = 1-[0.00114+0.009282+0.0358+0.0869+0.149]= 0.7178$

4 0

3 years ago