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Sveta_85 [38]
3 years ago
6

A firm utilizes a strategy of capital rationing, which is currently $375,000 and is considering the following two projects: Proj

ect A has a cost of $335,000 and the following cash flows: year 1 $140,000; year 2 $150,000; and year 3 $100,000. Project B has a cost of $365,000 and the following cash flows: year 1 $220,000; year 2 $110,000; and year 3 $150,000. Using a 6% cost of capital, which decision should the financial manager make?
Business
1 answer:
irinina [24]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The manager should pick project B

Explanation:

To determine what decision the manager should make, the NPV of both projects should be calculated.

Net present value is the present value of after tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.

NPV can be calculated using a financial calculator

NPV for project A

Cash flows:

Year 0 = $-335,000

year 1 = $140,000

year 2 = $150,000

year 3 = $100,000

I = 6%

NPV= $14,536.87

NPV for project B

Cash flows:

Year 0 = $-365,000

year 1 = $220,000

year 2 = $110,000

year 3 = $150,000

I = 6%

NPV= $66,389.67

Both projects are profitable but because the firm uses capital rationing , the manager has to pick the now profitbale project, which is project B.

To find the NPV using a financial calacutor:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

3. Press compute

I hope my answer helps you

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tigry1 [53]

Explanation:

The process cost shows the summary of the activities related to the production. It includes the cost of goods completed & transferred units  and the ending work in process inventory.

So, the given statement is true

The indirect cost are come under the manufacturing overhead cost. So, it would be charged to overhead control account

Thus, the given statement is false.

The direct labor includes that labor which is directly related to the production process of a product. So the single production department is likely to be a direct labor

Thus, the given statement is true.

To record the allocation of overhead, the following journal entry is required

Work in Process Inventory, Baking Dept  A/c Dr $24,500

       To Factory overhead A/c $24,500

(Being the overhead allocation is recorded)

The computation is shown below:

= Direct labor cost  × allocation rate

= $10,000 × 245%

= $24,500

Thus, the given statement is true.

7 0
4 years ago
Using this table, calculate the marginal cost of each of
alexandr402 [8]

Answer:

See below

Explanation:

Marginal cost is the additional expenses incurred in producing one more unit of output. Marginal cost is the expenses associated with the production of one extra unit.

In this case, there will be marginal costs in producing the first item. There is no extra unit in the first unit. Marginal costs will be zero. The second item's marginal cost will be the difference between the cost of the second and the first item.

First bike

=0

The fourth bike:

=Forth bike - third bike

=$130 -$110

= $20

The sixth bike

=sixth - fifth

=$210 -$160

=$50

The seventh bike

=seventh - sixth

=$270 -$210

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5 0
3 years ago
Delta Company produces a single product. The cost of producing and selling a single unit of the product at the company’snormal a
iogann1982 [59]

I assumed you typo 821 by $21 per unit, then the answer will be

1-  financial disadvantage of accepting the special order is loss of $60,000

2- a minimum selling price for these units should be $14.00

Explanation:

Loss of $60,000 = 15,000 x (14,000 – (5.1+3.8+1+4.2+1.5+2.4))

a minimum selling price for these units is $14.00 per unit because it’s the price the company can earn if accept a special order, though lower than cost of producing and selling at $18.00

6 0
3 years ago
A lender determines that a homebuyer can afford to borrow $220,000 on a mortgage loan. The lender requires an 85% loan-to-value
Dmitry [639]

Answer:

D: $259,000

Explanation:

The computation of the paying amount which borrower can pay for a property is shown below:

= Mortgage loan amount for borrow ÷  loan-to-value ratio

= $220,000 ÷ 85%

= $258,823.53

= $259,000 round off

We simply divide the mortgage loan by the loan to value ratio so that paying amount could arrive which borrower can pay for a property.

7 0
3 years ago
When the _____ value of debt is the same as its face value, it is said to be selling at _____ value.
Allushta [10]

Answer:

When the <u>market</u> value of debt is the same as its face value, it is said to be selling at <u>par</u> value.

Explanation:

Face value and par value is same. When market price of the bond is same as the face value of the bond it is said that this debt is trading on its par value. Par or face value is the value on which bond is initially issued and the value mentioned on the face of the bond. So, When the <u>market</u> value of debt is the same as its face value, it is said to be selling at <u>par</u> value.

8 0
3 years ago
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