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Kipish [7]
3 years ago
14

Ibram Corporation had 200,000 shares of $1 par value common stock outstanding. If Ibram announces a 4-for-1 stock split, the par

value and number of shares outstanding after the stock split would be:
Business
1 answer:
LenaWriter [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Post split Shares: 800,000

Post split par value: $0.25

Explanation:

Stock split seeks to increase the number of shares available for trading on the exchange thus increasing the liquidity. Stock split of 4 for 1 increases the shares by 4 times e.g. every holder of 1 share will receive total of 4 new shares. Thus the shares will increase to 4 times: (200,000 * 4) = 800,000.

Post split share price is calculated by dividing par value to the proposed split.

($1 / 4) = $0.25 per share.

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In terms of interests in real property, this is not an interest in land but a temporary right to use another's land for a limite
kifflom [539]

Answer:

a leasehold      

Explanation:

Leasehold relates to an accounting phrase for a rented resource. Usually the asset is estate such as a house or storage within a building. The lessee buyouts with the property owner in return for a sequence of planned payouts throughout the lease term, for the lawful right to utilize the estate.

Once a lease agreement is signed, to a degree permitted by the deal, the purchaser or tenant starts to construct the accommodation for its activities. In commercial real estate, leaseholds are much more popular whereby supermarkets as well as other facilities can be constructed on the ground but often occur in housing uses, such as homes and condos.

7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is not true about the stock market?
konstantin123 [22]

Buying a stock means your owning a veryyy small percent of a company, which is not enough to make you an owner of a company

6 0
3 years ago
Bryce Co. sales are $801,000, variable costs are $465,100, and operating income is $287,000. What is the contribution margin rat
KATRIN_1 [288]

Answer:

Contribution margin ratio= 0.42

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Bryce Co. sales are $801,000

Variable costs are $465,100

Operating income is $287,000.

<u>To calculate the contribution margin ratio, we need to use the following formula:</u>

contribution margin ratio= (sales - variable cost) / sales

contribution margin ratio= (801,000 - 465,100) / 801,000

contribution margin ratio= 0.42

8 0
3 years ago
A few days before the end of the term of a two-year NDA (non-disclosure agreement) he signed with a startup company related to a
Tom [10]

Answer:

Explanation:

If I was Frank I wouldn’t have disclosed the information from one company to the next, it is unethical and with an NDA information shouldn’t be passed on. Even though, it may have been an opportunity for the company he got hired and a threat to the company he disclosed the information from.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
To take advantage of an arbitrage opportunity, an investor would
Svetach [21]

Answer:

The answer is III) make simultaneous trades in two markets without any net investment.

Explanation:

Arbitrage is simultaneously buying an asset ( may be currency, securities...) in a low-priced market and sell it in a high-priced market.

As a results, the investor earns profit from price differences in the two markets without risk and net investment. It is because the two trading happens at the same time once price differences in any two markets are recognized ( arbitrage opportunities recognized) and the proceed of selling the asset is immediately used for financing/returning to the buying of the asset.

Thus, (III) is the correct answer.

5 0
3 years ago
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