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Olenka [21]
3 years ago
9

ABC Credit Union has a Commercial Crime policy that includes Computer Fraud coverage. After an employee was tricked into making

an unauthorized wire transfer on the basis of fraudulent, emailed instructions, why would the insurer deny the claim?
Business
1 answer:
Alexeev081 [22]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The insurer will deny because the fraud is not computer fraud but funds transfer fraud.

Explanation:

This loss is under Funds Transfer Fraud, not Computer Fraud.

When a computer is the direct means used for the crime, it is a Computer fraud. Fund transfer fraud coverage is when an instruction or series of instructions was what made the fraudulent transfer to occur, the means by which the instructions were given are not considered.

The crime was not in the use of a computer to make the transfer. It was in the instructions that caused an employee to make the transfer, making it a funds transfer fraud loss, not a computer fraud loss.

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Suppose the local slaughterhouse gives off an unpleasant stench. the price of meat would then be _______ because not all of the
Ivanshal [37]

Suppose the local slaughterhouse gives off an unpleasant stench. the price of meat would then be too low because not all of the costs are accounted for in the marketplace.

When the price of an item increases, buyers tend to purchase less of that item due to both the substitution effect and the income effect. When the pizza was on sale at the student council he was selling for $2, Mo didn't buy any. When the price dropped to $1.75 he bought one for Moe's daily lunch.

An increase in demand and a decrease in supply raises the slaughterhouse price, but the effect on the equilibrium quantity cannot be determined. 1. For each quantity, consumers should place a higher value on the goods and producers should set a higher price to supply the goods. Therefore, the price is higher.

Learn more about the slaughterhouse at

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7 0
1 year ago
Layla Fox is a creative, imaginative, artistically sensitive individual who loves to take on new opportunities. She is a success
il63 [147K]

Answer: B. Openness to experience

Explanation: According to the Big Five personality factors, openness as a personality factor measures the level curiousness, imaginative and creative ability exhibited by an individual. An individual low on openness will be described as someone who would rather stick to a routine outline or experience or methodology. However, Layla fox described above could be said to exhibit high openness to experience given her will or zeal to try out new opportunities, imaginative and creative capability.

4 0
3 years ago
Your​ company, which has a MARR of​ 12%, is considering the following two investment​ alternatives:
mote1985 [20]

Answer:

future worth:

project A  11,615.26

project B  12,139.18‬

It should choose project B as their future value is greater

IRR of project A: 13.54%

We should remember that the IRR is the rate at which the net value is zero thus, equals the inflow with the cash outlay

It is calculate with excel or financial calculator due to the complex of the formula.

Explanation:

Project A

We calculate the future value of the cash flow per year and cost as we are asked for future value. The salvage value is already at the end of the project life so we don't adjust it.

Revenues future value

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1}{rate} = FV\\  

C 15,000

time 8

rate 0.12

15000 \times \frac{(1+0.12)^{8} -1}{0.12} = FV\\  

FV $184,495.3970  

Expenses future value

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1}{rate} = FV\\

C 3,000

time 10

rate 0.12

3000 \times \frac{(1+0.12)^{10} -1}{0.12} = FV\\  

FV $52,646.2052  

Cost future value

Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount  

Principal 40,000.00

time 10.00

rate 0.12000

40000 \: (1+ 0.12)^{10} = Amount  

Amount 124,233.93

Net future worth:

-124,233.93 cost - 52,646.21 expenses + 184,495.40 revenues + 4,000 salvage value

future worth 11,615.26

Project B

cost:

Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount  

Principal 60,000.00

time 10.00

rate 0.12000

60000 \: (1+ 0.12)^{10} = Amount  

Amount 186,350.89

expenses 52,646.21 (same as previous)

revenues

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} }{rate} = FV\\  

C 24,000

time 7

rate 0.12

24000 \times \frac{(1+0.12)^{7} -1}{0.12} = FV\\  

FV $242,136.2815  

TOTAL

242,136.28 + 9,000 - 52,646.21 - 186,350.89 = 12,139.18‬

Internal rate of return of project A

we write the time and cash flow for each period.

Time Cash flow

0 -40,000

1 -3,000

2 -3,000

3 12,000

4 12,000

5 12,000

6 12,000

7 12,000

8 12,000

9 12,000

10 16,000

IRR 13.54%

Then we write on excel the function =IRR(select the cashflow)

and we got the IRR of the project

6 0
3 years ago
EB7.
egoroff_w [7]

Answer:

$4,228,125

Explanation:

The computation of the included amount is shown below:

= Estimated production in a next year × required direct labor per hour × labor rate per hour

= 75,000 units × 4.1 hours × $13.75 per hour

= $4,228,125

We simply multiplied the estimated production with the required direct labor per hour and the labor rate per hour so that the estimated value can arrive

5 0
3 years ago
A firm currently has a debt-equity ratio of 1/2. The debt, which is virtually riskless, pays an interest rate of 6%. The expecte
Svetradugi [14.3K]

Answer:

Expected return on equity is 11.33%

Explanation:

Using Weighted Average Cost Capital without tax formula, overall rate of return is given by the formula:

WACC=(Ke*E/V)+(Kd*D/V)

Kd is the cost of debt at 6%

Ke is the cost of equity at 12%

D/E=1/2 which means debt is 1 and equity is 2

D/V=debt/debt+equity=1/1+2=1/3

E/V=equity/debt+equity=2/1+2=2/3

WACC=(12%*2/3)+(6%*1/3)

WACC=10%

If the firm reduces debt-equity ratio to 1/3,1 is for debt 3 is for equity

D/V=debt/debt+equity=1/1+3=1/4

E/V=equity/debt+equity=3/1+3=3/4

WACC=10%

10%=(Ke*3/4)+(6%*1/4)

10%=(Ke*3/4)+1.5%

10%-1.5%=Ke*3/4

8.5%=Ke*3/4

8.5%=3Ke/4

8.5%*4=3 Ke

34%=3 Ke

Ke=34%/3

Ke=11.33%

4 0
3 years ago
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