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umka21 [38]
3 years ago
13

Suppose that you buy a TIPS (inflation-indexed) bond with a 1-year maturity and a coupon of 7% paid annually. Assume you buy the

bond at its face value of $1,000, and the inflation rate is 8%.
(a) What will be your cash flow at the end of the year?
(b) What will be your real return?
(c) What will be your nominal return?
Business
1 answer:
Kryger [21]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

at maturity I will receive 1,155.6

the real return is 7%

the nominal will be 15.56%

Explanation:

As it is indexed it will paid a real rate of 7% adjusted for 8% inflation

1,000(1+r)(1+\delta)=Amount

1,000 x 1.07 x 1.08 = 1,155.6 received at maturity

no know the nominal rate we do:

\frac{Amount}{Principal}-1

\frac{1,155.6}{1,000}-1

nominal = 0.1556 = 15.56%

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Look at the table price elasticity. what is the price elasticity of demand (using the midpoint formula) between $2.50 and $2.25?
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The difference is .25
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When brand equity is measured using stock valuation with an estimate of the portion of the value allocated to brand equity and n
natka813 [3]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": market value.

Explanation:

Market Value is the price of an asset that is traded or offered for sale in a public forum where multiple buyers are allowed to make offers to buy that asset. For marketable securities of publicly traded companies, the companies are required to issue periodic financial information to the public to meet a full-knowledge requirement.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Oslo Company prepared the following contribution format income statement based on a sales volume of 1,000 units (the relevant ra
Paul [167]

Answer:

1. $4.5

2. 45%

3. 55%

4. $4.50

5. $1,800

6. $3,150

7. $1,750

8. 500 units

9.$5,000

10. 2,300 units

11. $5,000

12. 2

13. 1.5%

Explanation:

1. Contribution margin per unit = Unit sales price - Variable cost per unit

• $10 - $5.5 = $4.5

2. Contribution margin ratio = (sales - variable expense) / Sales

• ($10,000 - $5,500) / $10,000

• $4,500/$10,000

•45%

3.Variable expense ratio = variable cost per unit / Sales per unit

•$5.5/$10 = 55%

4. Net operating income @1,000 - Net operating income @1,001

•@1,000 units

Sales (1,000 x 10) $10,000

Variable expense (1,000 x 5.5) $5,500

Contribution margin $4,500

Less: Fixed Cost $2,250

Net operating income $2,250

•@1,001 units

Sales (1,001 x 10) $10,010

Variable expense (1,001 x 5.5) $5,505.50

Contribution margin $4,504.50

Less: Fixed cost $2,250

Net operating income 2,254.50

Therefore, $2,254.50 - $2,250 = $4.50

5. Sales (900 x 10 ) $9,000

Variable expense (900 x 5.5) $4,950

Contribution margin $ 4,050

Less: Fixed cost $2,250

Total net operating income $1,800

6. Sales (900 x 11.50) $10,350

Variable cost (900 x 5.50) $4,950

Contribution margin $5,400

Less: Fixed cost $2,250

Net operating income $3,150

7. Sales (1,250 x 10) $12,500

Variable cost (1,250 x 6) $7,500

Contribution margin $5,000

Less: Fixed cost (2,250 + 1,000) $3,250

Net operating income $1,750

8. Break-even point in unit sales

BEP =Total fixed cost / (sale per unit - variable cost)

BEP = $2,250 / (10-5.5)

BEP = $2,250/$4.5

BEP = 500 units

9.Break-even point in dollar sales

BES = Total fixed expense/contribution margin ratio

BES = $2,250/([10,000-5,500]/10,000)

BES = $2,250/0.45

BES = $5,000

10. Let’s begin with the desired net operating income.

•$8,100 + Fixed cost = Contribution margin / (Sales per unit - Variable cost)

•$8,109 + $2,250 = $10,350/(10-5.50)

•$10,350/4.50

•2,300 units

11.Margin of safety = Projected sales - Break-even sales

MOS = $10,000(1,000 x 10) - $5,000 (as computed above #9)

MOS = $5,000

12. Degree of Operating leverage

DoL = (Sales-Variable cost) / (Sales - Variable cost - Fixed cost)

DoL = ($10,000 - 5,500) / ($10,000 - 5,500 - 2,250)

DoL = $4,500/$2,250

DoL = 2

13. 3% / 2 = 1.5%

• DoL simply signifies how many times the operating profit increase or decrease in relation to sales.

6 0
3 years ago
Pamela, a 1/3 partner, has an adjusted basis of $100,000 for her partnership interest. If Pamela sells her entire partnership in
creativ13 [48]

Answer: Capital gain = $10,000 ; Ordinary income = $25,000

Explanation:

Here is the complete question:

The PLM Partnership balance sheet includes the following assets on December 31 of the current year:

Basis FMV

Cash $230,000 $230,000

Accounts receivable 0 75000

Land 70,000 100,000

Total $300,000 $405,000

Pamela, a 1/3 partner, has an adjusted basis of $100,000 for her partnership interest. If Pamela sells her entire partnership interest to Emma for $135,000 cash, how much capital gain and ordinary income must Pamela recognize from the sale?

The following can be calculated based on the question above:

Pamela's share of the unrealized receivables will be the ordinary income which will be the unrealized receivables of $75000 which is then multiplied by 1/3 which is the interest. This will be:

Ordinary income = 1/3 × $75,00

= $25,000

The capital gain will be the difference that occurs between total gain and ordinary income.

Total gain difference

= $135,000 - $100,000

= $35,000

Ordinary Income = $25,000

Capital gain = $35,000 - $25,000

= $10,000

5 0
3 years ago
Mullineaux Corporation has a target capital structure of 64 percent common stock, 9 percent preferred stock, and 27 percent debt
nlexa [21]

Answer:

10.02%

Explanation:

The computation of the WACC is shown below. The formula of WACC is shown below:

= (Weightage of debt × cost of debt)  + (Weightage of preferred stock) × (cost of preferred stock) + (Weightage of  common stock) × (cost of common stock)

= 27% × 7.6% × (1 - 0.40) + 9% × 5.9% + 64% × 12.9%

= 2.052% × (1 - 0.40) + 0.531% + 8.256%

= 10.02%

8 0
3 years ago
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