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Setler79 [48]
3 years ago
11

Pls help will give brainliest

Mathematics
2 answers:
tia_tia [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:


Step-by-step explanation:

i dont think were really supposed to be answering something like this... you literally posted a picture of your test...

Firdavs [7]3 years ago
3 0
1st one is 3/17
2nd is 4
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Pls help I’ll give brainliest
alexandr402 [8]
What grade is this? are these meant to be fractions?
7 0
3 years ago
The height of a volleyball, h, in feet, is given by h = −16t2 + 11t + 5.5, where t is the number of seconds after it has been hi
slavikrds [6]

Answer:

It will travel high enough

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the vertex of the parabola:

x=-b/2a

x=-11/2(-16)

x=-11/-32

x=11/32

Plug x=11/32 into quadratic to get the y-coordinate:

h=-16(11/32)^2+11(11/32)+5.5

h=7.391

Since 7.391>7.3, the volleyball will travel high enough (aka. yes)

3 0
3 years ago
Help please Math problems?
Andrews [41]
The answer is ep I think
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Write an equation in slope-intercept form that has m = 5/4 through (-4,-3)
timama [110]

Answer:

y=5/4x + 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Ok so in the point (-4,-3) -4 is x and -3 is y. Now, since you have the slope, 5/4, you can put it into an equation. -3= 5/4(-4) + b. When you multiply 5/4 x -4 you get -3=-5 + b so then add 5 to both sides to get rid of it and you have 2=b. And your equation would be y=5/4x + 2

4 0
3 years ago
Use the fact that the mean of a geometric distribution is μ= 1 p and the variance is σ2= q p2. A daily number lottery chooses th
butalik [34]

Answer:

a). The mean = 1000

     The variance = 999,000

     The standard deviation = 999.4999

b). 1000 times , loss

Step-by-step explanation:

The mean of geometric distribution is given as , $\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

And the variance is given by, $\sigma ^2=\frac{q}{p^2}$

Given : $p=\frac{1}{1000}$

             = 0.001

The formulae of mean and variance are :

$\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

$\sigma ^2=\frac{q}{p^2}$

$\sigma ^2=\frac{1-p}{p^2}$

a). Mean =   $\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

              = $\mu = \frac{1}{0.001}$

              = 1000

  Variance =   $\sigma ^2=\frac{1-p}{p^2}$

                  = $\sigma ^2=\frac{1-0.001}{0.001^2}$

                           = 999,000

   The standard deviation is determined by the root of the variance.

    $\sigma = \sqrt{\sigma^2}$

        = $\sqrt{999,000}$ = 999.4999

b). We expect to have play lottery 1000  times to win, because the mean in part (a) is 1000.

When we win the profit is 500 - 1 = 499

When we lose, the profit is -1

Expected value of the mean μ is the summation of a product of each of the possibility x with the probability P(x).

$\mu=\Sigma\ x\ P(x)= 499 \times 0.001+(-1) \times (1-0.001)$

  = $ 0.50

Since the answer is negative, we are expected to make a loss.

4 0
3 years ago
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