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3 years ago

If f(3) = 2 and f'(3) = -4 , find an equation of the tangent line when x = 3.

Mathematics

1 answer:

ryzh [129]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of a line in point- slope form is

y - b = m(x - a)

where m is the slope and (a, b) a point on the line

f'(3) = - 4 ← is the slope of the line at x = 3

and f(3) = 2 is the point (3, 2 ) thus

y - 2 = - 4(x - 3) ← add 2 to both sides

y = - 4(x - 3) + 2 → B

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Please answer I’ll rate brainlyest

Otrada [13]

Answer:

1. $\dfrac{120}{285}=\dfrac{8}{19}$

2. $\dfrac{25}{285}=\dfrac{5}{57}$

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Russell is 5'9'' (under 6 feet). There are 130+120+35=285 players with the height under 6 feet and 120 of them are forwards. The probability that Russell is a forward is

$\dfrac{120}{285}=\dfrac{8}{19}$

2. Peter is 6'2'' (over 6 feet). There are 25+30+30=85 players with the height over 6 feet and 25 of them are guards. The probability that Peter is a guard is

$\dfrac{25}{285}=\dfrac{5}{57}$

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Clare spent a total of 25 minutes at the track. She spent 5 minutes stretching and walked 4 laps around the track. If she walked

andrezito [222]

Hello!

First of all, we can subtract the stretching time. This gives us 20. If we divide by the four laps we get 5 minutes per lap.

Now, one lap is 400 meters (most tracks are), which is equal to 15,748.03 inches. This means it takes her five minutes to walk 15,748.03 inches. This is also equal to 300 seconds, so it takes her 300 minutes per 15,748.03 inches.

But if we round our big inches number to the nearest ten thousandth, we get 16,000, so in a simpler form her pace is 300/16,000. But we need to find in per second. Therefore we will divide by 300 to find how many inches she walks per second. This means she walks about 53.33 inches per second.

I hope this helps!

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Sample Response: The two conditional probabilities are not equal because each has different given events. P(A|D) has event D as

Ivan

The conditional probability illustrates that's there's a 2/8 that the event A occurs.

<h3>How to illustrate the probability?</h3>

It should be noted that probability simply means the likelihood of the occurence of an event.

In this case, it can be delivered that P(AID) and P(DIA) aren't equal.

Hence, P(D|A) has event A as its given event, resulting in 2/8 for a probability.

Learn more about probability on:

brainly.com/question/24756209

#SPJ1

7 0

2 years ago

A pack of gum costs 75 cents. That is 3 cents less than three times what the pack cost 20 years ago. Which equation could be use

Tamiku [17]

75-3×3x=?
I believe that would be the equation.

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

For a certain candy, 20% of the pieces are yellow, 15% are red, 20% are blue, 20% are green, and the rest are brown. a

OLEGan [10]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Based on the question we are given the percentages of each of the types of candies in the bag except for brown. Since the sum of all the percentages equals 75% and brown is the remaining percent then we can calculate that brown is (100-75 = 25%) 25% of the bag. Now we can show the probabilities of getting a certain type of candy by placing the percentages over the total percentage (100%).

Brown: $\frac{25}{100}$
Yellow or Blue: $\frac{20}{100} +\frac{20}{100} = \frac{40}{100}$ ....add the numerators

Not Green: $\frac{80}{100}$ .... since the sum of all the rest is 80%

Stiped: $\frac{25}{100}$ .... there are 0 striped candies.

Assuming the <u><em>ratios/percentages</em></u> of the candies stay the same having an infinite amount of candy will not affect the probabilities. That being said in order to calculate consecutive probability of getting 3 of a certain type in a row we have to multiply the probabilities together. This is calculated by multiplying the numerators with numerators and denominators with denominators.

3 Browns: $\frac{25*25*25}{100*100*100} = \frac{15,625}{1,000,000} = \frac{1.5625}{100}$

the 1st and 3rd are red while the middle is any. We multiply 15% * (total of all minus red which is 85%) * 15% like so.

$\frac{15*85*15}{100*100*100} = \frac{19,125}{1,000,000} = \frac{1.9125}{100}$

None are Yellow: multiply the percent of all minus yellow three times.

$\frac{80*80*80}{100*100*100} = \frac{512,000}{1,000,000} = \frac{51.2}{100}$

At least 1 green: multiply the percent of green by 100% twice, since the other two can by any

$\frac{20*100*100}{100*100*100} = \frac{200,000}{1,000,000} = \frac{20}{100}$

4 0

2 years ago