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Brrunno [24]
3 years ago
14

A company uses the percent of sales method to determine its bad debts expense. At the end of the current year, the company's una

djusted trial balance reported the following selected amounts: 375,000 debit Accounts receivable 500 debit Allowance for uncollectible accounts 800,000 credit Net Sales All sales are made on credit. Based on past experience, the company estimates that 0.6% of net credit sales are uncollectible. What amount should be debited to Bad Debts Expense when the year-end adjusting entry is prepared? a.$1,275 b.$1,775 c.$4,500 d.$4,800 e.$5,500
Business
1 answer:
Maru [420]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Option E is the correct answer

5300$ is the correct answer.

Explanation:

Credit Sales = $800000

Uncollectible net sales = $800000*0.6% = $4800

Hence, balance in Allowance for uncollectible accounts after adjustment should be $4800 credit

Balance already in the account = $500 debit

Hence, adjustment required is $5300 credit

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Crispy Fried Chicken bought equipment on January 2​, 2016​, for $ 18 comma 000. The equipment was expected to remain in service
qaws [65]

Answer:

Please check the attached image for the depreciation schedule

2. Units of production method

Explanation:

Book value in year 1 = Cost of asset - Depreciation expense of year 1

Book value in year in subsequent years = previous book value - that year's depreciation expense

Accumulated depreciation is sum of deprecation expense

Straight line depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

($18,000 - $3,000) / 4 = $3,750

Depreciation expense each year of the useful life is $3,750

Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset

Deprecation factor = 2 x (1/useful life) = 0.5

Depreciation expense in year 1 = 0.5 x $18,000 = $9,000

Book value = $18,000 - $9,000 = $9,000

Depreciation expense in year 2 = 0.5 × $9,000 = $4,500

Book value = $9,000 - $4,500 = $4,500

Depreciation expense in year 3 = 0.5 x $4,500 = $2250

Book value = $4,500 - $2250 = $2250

Depreciation expense in year 4 = 0.5 × $2250 = $1125

Depreciation expense using the unit of production method =( Total production in the year/ total productive capacity) × (cost of asset - Salvage value)

Depreciation expense in year 1 = ($18,000 - $3,000) x (300 / 3000) = $1,500

Depreciation expense in year 2 =18,000 - $3,000) x (900 / 3000) = $4,500

Depreciation expense in year 3 = (18,000 - $3,000) x (1200 / 3000) = $6,000

Depreciation expense in year 3 = (18,000 - $3,000) x (600 / 3000) = $3,000

The Units of production method tracks wear and tear accurately because deprecation depends on the production each year.

I hope my answer helps you

6 0
3 years ago
TIME REMAINING
Otrada [13]

Answer:

based on the economics , the one that should be the most influential in making the decisions is : the value of resources The value of resources refer the one's capability in spending their resource to get what they want. An entity with low amount of resources , tend to be more careful about how they spent their resource Hope this helps. Let me know if you need additional help!

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
There are four consumers willing to pay the following amounts for haircuts, and there are four haircutting businesses with the f
Softa [21]

Based on efficiency, the businesses that should cut hair are the A and C; moreover, to meet the demand, each firm will need to offer at least two haircuts.

The supply of a product or the units of a product that is offered to potential customers should always meet the number of real customers. In the same way, the price of the product should meet the price customers are willing to pay.

In this context, the best is that only firm A and C cut hair, this is because their prices per cut ($25 and $30) match the consumers' willingness to pay this includes Lorenzo ($35), Gilberto ($50), Juanita ($40) and Neha ($25).

  • Firm A can cut Neha's and Lorenzo's hair
  • Firm C can cut Gilberto's and Juanita's hair

Moreover, this implies each firm needs to do at least 2 haircuts to cover all the possible customers.

In the case of firms B and D, the price per cut is high ($40 - $45). Based on this,  they should not cut hair as only a few customers can pay for this service, and this would be inefficient.

Learn more in: brainly.com/question/13225200

4 0
2 years ago
The refusal of the US Senate to ratify the ITO's charter "doomed" the International Trade Organization (ITO).
alex41 [277]
Im not sure i think it may be false tho
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Rand Company had May operations as follows. Units actually produced 76,000 Actual direct labor hours worked 160,000 Actual varia
Pavel [41]

Answer:

B. 20,000

Explanation:

Standard Variable overhead rate = $6 per units / 2 direct labour hour

Standard Variable overhead rate = $3 per hour

Variable Overhead Spending Variance = Actual hours worked * (Actual overhead rate - Standard overhead rate)

Variable overhead spending variance = 160,000 * (3.125 -3)

Variable overhead spending variance = 160000*0.875

Variable overhead spending variance = 20,000

4 0
2 years ago
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