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Brrunno [24]
3 years ago
14

A company uses the percent of sales method to determine its bad debts expense. At the end of the current year, the company's una

djusted trial balance reported the following selected amounts: 375,000 debit Accounts receivable 500 debit Allowance for uncollectible accounts 800,000 credit Net Sales All sales are made on credit. Based on past experience, the company estimates that 0.6% of net credit sales are uncollectible. What amount should be debited to Bad Debts Expense when the year-end adjusting entry is prepared? a.$1,275 b.$1,775 c.$4,500 d.$4,800 e.$5,500
Business
1 answer:
Maru [420]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Option E is the correct answer

5300$ is the correct answer.

Explanation:

Credit Sales = $800000

Uncollectible net sales = $800000*0.6% = $4800

Hence, balance in Allowance for uncollectible accounts after adjustment should be $4800 credit

Balance already in the account = $500 debit

Hence, adjustment required is $5300 credit

You might be interested in
Garland Company received proceeds of $235000 on 10-year, 6% bonds issued on January 1, 2018. The bonds had a face value of $2500
Lerok [7]

Answer:

$238000

Explanation:

The computation of the carrying value of the bond is shown below:

Given that

Face Value of Bonds = $250,000

Proceeds from issuance of bonds = $235,000

Before that we need to compute the following things

Now

Discount on Bonds Payable = Face Value of Bonds - Proceeds from issuance of bonds

= $250,000 - $235,000

= $15,000

Life of Bonds = 10 years

Now

Discount on Bonds amortized annually = Discount on Bonds Payable ÷ Life of Bonds

= $15,000 ÷ 10

= $1,500

Now

Discount amortized is

= Discount on Bonds amortized annually × expired life

= $1,500 × 2

= $3,000

Finally

Carrying Value of Bonds = Issue Price + Discount amortized

= $235,000 + $3.000

= $238,000

5 0
3 years ago
Cavern Company's output for the current period results in a $5,250 unfavorable direct material price variance. The actual price
lisov135 [29]

Answer:

3,500 pounds

Explanation:

By applying the below formula we get:

AQ(AP-SP)

USD 5,250 (unfavorable price variance )

USD 5,250/(AP - SP) = AQ

So,

USD 5,250/(USD 56.50 - USD 55.00)

= 3,500

4 0
2 years ago
An accounting clerk for Chesner Co. prepared the following bank reconciliation:
cricket20 [7]

Answer:

A. Adjusted balance $17,760

Adjusted balance $17,760

B. $17,760

Explanation:

A. Preparation of a new bank reconciliation for Chesner Co.

Cash balance according to bank statement l

$14,220

Add Deposit in transit on August 31 $6,690

Deduct Outstanding checks $3,150

Adjusted balance $17,760

Cash balance according to company's records $6,570

Add Error by Chesner Co. in recording Check No. 1056 as $820 instead of $280 540

Add Note for $10,300 collected by bank, including interest 10,710

Less Bank service charges 60

Adjusted balance $17,760

B. Based on the above bank reconciliation If a balance sheet were prepared for Chesner Co. on July 31, 2016 the amount that should be reported for cash is $17,760

From the data prepared by the accounting clerk,

b. If a balance sheet were prepared for Chesner Co. on July 31, 2016, what amount should be reported for cash?

5 0
3 years ago
A post-closing trial balance should be prepared
yanalaym [24]

Answer:

<h2>Post-Closing trial balance is usually prepared after the closing entries are posted to the ledger account.Hence,the correct answer is the third option or after closing entries are posted to the ledger accounts.</h2>

Explanation:

In Accounting,the main objective of preparing a post-closing trial balance is to ensure the completion and closure of all the temporary accounts and the equality between all the debit and credit entries have been consistently established once the closing entry has been done.Once the closing entries have been put into journal and finally posted in ledger,a detailed account or list of all the individual accounts along with their respective balances is prepared which is basically known as Post Closing Trial Balance Account.It includes all the unbalanced accounts from the original trial balance or the accounts which are not balanced based on debt and credit entries,at the end of the accounting or reporting year.Therefore,post-trial balance basically ensures that all the accounts entered in the original trial balance are zero balance or the debit and credit entries of all the individual accounts in trial balance are balanced or equal.

7 0
3 years ago
Grateful Eight Co. is expected to maintain a constant 4.6 percent growth rate in its dividends indefinitely. If the company has
ad-work [718]

Answer:

11%

Explanation:

To address this exercise, we need to recall the formula for dividend discounted model (DDM). The DDM is stated as below:

Stock intrinsic value = Next year dividend/(Required rate of return - Long term growth)

Rearrange a bit this formula, we have:

Next year dividend/Stock intrinsic value = Required rate of return - Long term growth, or

Dividend yield = Required rate of return - Long term growth

Putting all the number together, we have:

6.4% = Required rate of return - 4.6% or Required rate of return = 11%

7 0
3 years ago
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