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aalyn [17]
3 years ago
10

Is every whole number a multiple of 1?

Mathematics
1 answer:
marissa [1.9K]3 years ago
6 0

Yes, it is. Even 0. 1x0=0

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As a salesperson, you are paid $92 per week plus $4 per sale. This week you want your pay to be at least $200. Write an inequali
poizon [28]
The correct answer is D.

92 + 4(27) ≥ 200
92 + 108 ≥ 200
200 ≥  200

This inequality states that in order to make $200, you need to make at least 27 sales.
6 0
4 years ago
Deepak wrote out the steps to his solution of the equation startfraction 5 over 2 minus 3 x minus 5 plus 4 x equals negative sta
andre [41]

The solution is x=3/4

How can we solve given equation?

First, we will solve like terms. Then shift constant to other side and keep x on the same side to get the value of x.

We can solve given equation as shown below:

5/2-3x-5+4x=-7/4

(5-10)/2+x=-7/4

-5/2+x=-7/4

x=5/2-7/4

x= (10-7)/4

x=3/4

Hence, the solution is x=3/4.

Learn more about Linear equations here:

brainly.com/question/43297

#SPJ4

4 0
2 years ago
How many minutes are in the month of October
nadezda [96]

October has 31 days.

31 days x 24 hours in a day x 60 minutes in one hour 

= 44,640 minutes.

6 0
3 years ago
Cos pi/4 cos pi/6= 1/2(___pi/12+cos 5pi/12) fill in the blank
inessss [21]

Answer:

\cos(\frac{\pi}{4})\cos(\frac{\pi}{6})=\frac{1}{2}(\cos(\frac{\pi}{12})+\cos(\frac{5\pi}{12}))

So the blank is cos.

Step-by-step explanation:

There is an identity for this:

\cos(a)\cos(b)=\frac{1}{2}(\cos(a+b)+\cos(a-b))

Let's see if this is fit by your left hand and right hand side:

So a=\frac{\pi}{4} while b=\frac{pi}{6}.

Let's plug these in to the identity above:

\cos(\frac{\pi}{4})\cos(\frac{\pi}{6})=\frac{1}{2}(\cos(\frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{\pi}{6})+\cos(\frac{\pi}{4}-\frac{\pi}{6}))

Ok, we definitely have the left hand sides are the same.

Let's see if the right hand sides are the same.

Before we move on let's see if we can find the sum and difference of \frac{\pi}{4} and \frac{\pi}{6}.

We will need a common denominator.  How about 12? 12 works because 4 and 6 go into 12.  That is 4(3)=12 and 6(2)=12.

\frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{\pi}{6}=\frac{3\pi}{12}+\frac{2\pi}{12}=\frac{5\pi}{12}.

\frac{\pi}{4}-\frac{\pi}{6}=\frac{3\pi}{12}-\frac{2\pi}{12}=\frac{\pi}{12}.

Let's go back to our identity now:

\cos(\frac{\pi}{4})\cos(\frac{\pi}{6})=\frac{1}{2}(\cos(\frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{\pi}{6})+\cos(\frac{\pi}{4}-\frac{\pi}{6}))

\cos(\frac{\pi}{4})\cos(\frac{\pi}{6})=\frac{1}{2}(\cos(\frac{5\pi}{12})+\cos(\frac{\pi}{12}))

We can rearrange the right hand side inside the ( ) using commutative property of addition:

\cos(\frac{\pi}{4})\cos(\frac{\pi}{6})=\frac{1}{2}(\cos(\frac{\pi}{12})+\cos(\frac{5\pi}{12}))

So comparing my left hand side to their left hand side we see that the blank should be cos.

4 0
3 years ago
Virginia is selling boxes of chocolates for a school fundraiser. She started to graph the relationship between the number of cho
marysya [2.9K]

Answer:

OC:15

Step-by-step explanation:

5×3=15

I hope this helps

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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