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3 years ago

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John's Auto Repair just obtained an interest-only loan of $35,000 with annual payments for 10 years and an interest rate of 8 pe

rcent. What is the amount of the loan payment in Year 8?

1 answer:

Nookie1986 [14]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

$2,800

Explanation:

An interest only loan represents a type of loan offer where a borrower is only expected to pay the interest either for some of the term of the loan as agreed or for all of the terms of the loan. However, the principal amount that is collected remains constant all through the agreed interest -only period.

Since the loan obtained by John's Auto Repair is Interest Only, it means that the principal of $35,000 remains constant.

Hence, in the 8th year, John is expected to pay only the interest for the period =

0.08 x $35,000

= $2,800

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We observe the following annualized yields on four Treasury securities: (75%)

Anon25 [30]

Answer:

Explanation:

1.

From the given information;

The spot rate for maturity at 0.5 year $(X_1) = 4\%/2 = 2\%$

The spot rate for maturity at 1 year is:

= $\dfrac{22.5}{(1+X_1)}+ \dfrac{1000 + 22.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000$

= $\dfrac{22.5}{(1+0.02)}+ \dfrac{1000 + 22.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000$

= $\dfrac{22.5}{(1+0.02)}+ \dfrac{1022.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000$

By solving for $X_2$ ;

$X_2$ = 2.253%

The spot rate for maturity at 1.5 years is:

$= \dfrac{25}{(1+X_1)}+ \dfrac{25}{(1+X_2)^2}+ \dfrac{1000 + 25}{(1+X_3)^3}=1000$

Solving for $X_3$

$X_3$ = 2.510%

The spot rate for maturity at 2 years is:

$= \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_1)}+ \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_2)^2}+ \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_3)^3} +\dfrac{1000+27.5}{(1+X_4)^4} =1000$

By solving for $X_4$ ;

$X_4$ = 2.770%

Recall that:

Coupon rate = yield to maturity for par bond.

Thus, the annual coupon rates are 4%, 4.5%, 5%, and 5.5% for 0.5, 1, 1.5, 2 years respectively.

2.

For n years, the price of n-bond is:

$= \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ 1}{1+X_1}+ \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ 2}{(1+X_2)^2}+... + \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ b}{(1+X_n)^n}$

Thus, for 2 years bond implies 4 periods;

∴

$= \dfrac{40}{1+0.02}+ \dfrac{40}{(1+0.02253)^2} + \dfrac{40}{(1+0.0252)^3}+ \dfrac{40}{(1+0.0277)^4}$

= $1047.024

3.

Suppose there exist no-arbitrage, then the price is:

$= \dfrac{0}{(1+0.02)}+\dfrac{1000}{(1+0.02253)^2}$

= 956.4183

Since the market price < arbitrage price.

We then consider 0.5, 1-year bonds from the portfolio

Now;

weight 2 × 1000 + weight 2 × 22.5 = 1000

weight 2 × 1022.5 = 1000

weight 2 = 1022.5/1000

weight 2 = 0.976

weight 1 + weight 2 = 1

weight 1 = 1 - weight 2

weight 1 = 1 - 0.976

weight 1 = 0.022

The price of a 0.5-year bond will be:

$= \dfrac{1000}{(1+0.02\%)} \\ \\ =\mathbf{980.39}$

The price of a 1-year bond will be = 1000

Market value on the bond portfolio = 0.022 × price of 0.5 bond + 0.978 × price 1-year bond = 956.42

= 0.022 × 980.39 + 0.978 × 1000

= 956.42

So, to have arbitrage profit, the investor needs to purchase 1 unit of the 1-year zero-coupon bond as well as 0.022 units of the 0.5-year bond. Then sell 0.978 unit of the 1-year bond.

Then will he be able to have an arbitrage profit of $56.42

4.

The one-period ahead forward rates can be computed as follows:

Foward rate from 0 to 0.5 $X_1$ = 2%

Foward rate from 0.5 to 1

$(1+X_2)^2 = (1+X_1) \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 0.5 \ to \ 1 )$

$(1+0.0225)^2 = (1+0.02) \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 0.5 \ to \ 1 )$

Foward rate from 0.5 to 1 = 2.5%

Foward rate from 1 to 1.5

$(1+X_3)^3 = (1+X_2)^2 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1 \ to \ 1.5 )$

$(1+0.0251)^3 = (1+0.0225)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1 \ to \ 1.5 )$

Foward rate from 1 to 1.5 =3.021%

Foward rate from 1.5 to 2

$(1+X_4)^4 = (1+X_3)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1.5 \ to \ 2 )$

$(1+0.0277)^4 = (1+0.0251)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1.5 \ to \ 2 )$

Foward rate from 1.5 to 2 =3.021%

5.

The expected price of the bond if the hypothesis hold :

= $\dfrac{40}{1+ 0.03021}+ \dfrac{1000+40}{(1+0.03285)^2}$

$= \dfrac{40}{(1.03021)}+ \dfrac{1040}{(1.03285)^2}}$

= 1013.724254

= 1013.72

4 0

3 years ago

I would just like the people who run this know that priyanka2003 gave an incorrect answer

BARSIC [14]

Answer:

Bruh thats mean smh

Explanation:

4 0

3 years ago

What might you expect to find out about people who are described as credit risks?

wolverine [178]

Answer:

B. They have a history of not making their payments on time.

Explanation:

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Before negotiating a long-term construction contract, build- ing contractors must carefully estimate the total cost of completin

zysi [14]

Answer:

<h3>Benzion Barlev of New York University</h3>

NEGOTIATION OF A LONG-TERM CONSTRUCTION CONTRACT

a. The probability that the contract will be profitable for the contractor is:

= 81%

b. The probability that the project will result in a loss for the contractor is:

= 19%

c. The value of R that the contractor should strive for in order to have a .99 probability of making a profit is:

= $1,246,100.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Mean total cost (x) = $850,000

Standard deviation = $170,000

Revenue = $1,000,000

Probability of being profitable = (R - x)/std deviation

= ($1,000,000 - $850,000)/$170,000

= $150,000/$170,000

= 0.882

From Z table, 0.882 = 0.81057 = 81%

Probability of loss = 19% (100 - 81%)

To have a 99% (0.99) probability of making a profit, Z value = 2.33 from the Z table:

(R - x)/std deviation = 2.33

(R - x) = 2.33 * $170,000

= $396,100

(R - $850,000) = $396,100

R = $396,100 + $850,000

R = $1,246,100

7 0

3 years ago

https://A general rule of thumb among marketing researchers is to use ________ first and then collect ________. Group of answer

Veseljchak [2.6K]

Answer:

A general rule of thumb among marketing researchers is to use secondary data first and then collect primary data.

hope it helps:)

mark brainliest!

3 0

3 years ago