Answer:
I think the first 4 are right
5-8
sorry I cant read it it it is too small so I will explain
5.1 x 10^-2 would be 0.051 just move the decimal left x spaces where x is the exponent
9
4.4 x 10^3
10
7.5 x 10^4
11
6.99 x 10^7
12
5.75 x 10^9
13
8.4 x 10^-2
14
9.9 x 10^-3
15
5.15 x 10^-7
16
3.07 x 10^-5
17
you got it right
18
you got it right
19
Singapore
Luxembourg
Australia
Egypt
Brazil
20
3,670,000,000
21
6.2 x 10^-6
22
125,000,000,000
1.25 x 10^11
Step-by-step explanation:
i hope I helped
Break it down into two parts. First, what is the probability of drawing a blue marble on the first draw?Since there are 5 blue marbles and 10 total, the probability is 5⁄10, or 1/2. Now since we no longer have that blue marble, there are 4 blue marbles and 9 total. The chances of drawing a blue marble are 4/9. Therefore, the chance that both marbles drawn are blue is the chance that the first one is blue times the chance that the second one is blue. 1/2 * 4/9 = 4/18 = 2/9 Remember, math is always trying to trick you. It wants you to try and do the whole big problem at once, which can be difficult. Break it down into smaller problems, then use your answers to small parts to find the answer to the big question. Hope that helps,
Answer:
The answer is "88.9%"
Step-by-step explanation:
The Variance percentage indicates through the REgression equation but, the R-Square, it becoming the determination coefficient. 88.871% of the variance could be explained according to the above results.
Lwh = (3+3+6) (4) (7)
12 x 4 x 7 = 336
Answer:
a = 1.95
Step-by-step explanation:
40a - 61 = 17
40a - 61 + 61 = 17 + 61
40a = 78
40a / 40 = 78 / 40
a = 1.95
