So for a mother ages 28 , there is a chance of 1 in 1000 , but at the age of 38 there is a chance of 1 in 200 . to work out how many times more likely it is for the 38 year old to give birth to a child with down syndrome is to divide 1000 by 200 and this gives us 5 . so the 38 year old is 5 times more likely to give birth to a child with down syndrome than a 28 year old :)
Answer:
idrk lol
Step-by-step explanation:
have a nice day tho
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
3 * 4 = 12 - 6
12 = 6
This statement is false
Brenda earns $1,700 per month after taxes. She is working on her budget and has the first three categories finished.Housing $612
Food $238
Transportation $370
What is the problem with this budget?
The answer is => She has allotted more than 36% of her income for housing
The easiest way is to graph it based upon the slope (m) and y-intercept (b), in the standard slope-intercept form: y = m (x) + b.
The line above intercepts the y-axis at y = -2, which is b. The slope (m) = rise/run = (y2-y1)/(x2-x1 ); so for the point (-4, 2) to (-6, 4) is:
(4-2)/(-6--4) = 2/(-6+4) = 2/-2 = -1.
So one form of the equation would be:
y = -1x - 2
Now the other form of an equation is point-slope: y-k = m (x-h), where the point is at (h, k)
and if we pick -5 for x (bc 5 it listed in 3 of the answers), the y at x=-5 looks like around +3
so we get: y-k = -1 (x--5)...
y-3 = -(x+5)... therefore D) is the correct answer:
