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Tanya [424]
3 years ago
10

A company that manufactures toothpaste is studying five different package designs. Assuming that one design is just as likely to

be selected by a consumer as any other design, what selection probability would you assign to each of the package designs? In an actual experiment, 100 consumers were asked to pick the design they preferred. The following data were obtained. Do the data appear to confirm the belief that one design is just as likely to be selected as another? Explain design number of times preferred.
1 5
2 15
3 30
4 40
5 10
Mathematics
1 answer:
Pachacha [2.7K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The selection probability that would be assigned to each of the package designs , since they are equally likely is 1/5= 0.2

step-by-step explanation:

the data appear not to confirm the belief that one design is just as likely to be selected as another because 1 is preferred 5 times and 4 is preferred 40 times, this is very wide apart, and it confirmed the belief that one design is not as likely to be selected as another.

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Find the solution of the problem (1 3. (2 cos x - y sin x)dx + (cos x + sin y)dy=0.
lakkis [162]

Answer:

2*sin(x)+y*cos(x)-cos(y)=C_1

Step-by-step explanation:

Let:

P(x,y)=2*cos(x)-y*sin(x)

Q(x,y)=cos(x)+sin(y)

This is an exact differential equation because:

\frac{\partial P(x,y)}{\partial y} =-sin(x)

\frac{\partial Q(x,y)}{\partial x}=-sin(x)

With this in mind let's define f(x,y) such that:

\frac{\partial f(x,y)}{\partial x}=P(x,y)

and

\frac{\partial f(x,y)}{\partial y}=Q(x,y)

So, the solution will be given by f(x,y)=C1, C1=arbitrary constant

Now, integrate \frac{\partial f(x,y)}{\partial x} with respect to x in order to find f(x,y)

f(x,y)=\int\  2*cos(x)-y*sin(x)\, dx =2*sin(x)+y*cos(x)+g(y)

where g(y) is an arbitrary function of y

Let's differentiate f(x,y) with respect to y in order to find g(y):

\frac{\partial f(x,y)}{\partial y}=\frac{\partial }{\partial y} (2*sin(x)+y*cos(x)+g(y))=cos(x)+\frac{dg(y)}{dy}

Now, let's replace the previous result into \frac{\partial f(x,y)}{\partial y}=Q(x,y) :

cos(x)+\frac{dg(y)}{dy}=cos(x)+sin(y)

Solving for \frac{dg(y)}{dy}

\frac{dg(y)}{dy}=sin(y)

Integrating both sides with respect to y:

g(y)=\int\ sin(y)  \, dy =-cos(y)

Replacing this result into f(x,y)

f(x,y)=2*sin(x)+y*cos(x)-cos(y)

Finally the solution is f(x,y)=C1 :

2*sin(x)+y*cos(x)-cos(y)=C_1

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