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kupik [55]
3 years ago
14

Initially, a perfectly competitive industry that has 1,000 firms is in long-run equilibrium. Then 100 firms in the industry adop

t a new technology that reduces the average cost of producing the good. In the short run, the price ________, firms with the new technology make ________ economic profit, and firms with the old technology ________.
Business
1 answer:
Simora [160]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

B. falls; positive economic; incur economic losses

Explanation: A perfectly Competitive industry is a collection of firms who are producing similar products,these firms are known as price takers as the pressure from the market forces and other impacts that causes an change in price will affect them easily as they will have to take the price even when it is not favourable to their business, this is done in order to remain competitive and relevant in the market.

You might be interested in
US GAAP and IFRS differ on treatment of impairment of tangible assets as follows:
erik [133]

Answer:

A. IFRS, tangible assets are tested only when factors suggest impairment.

Explanation:

The tested of the tangible assets would be based on some kind of changes that are change in the market value, chnage in the technology, rise or reduction in the rate of interest in the market etc

In addition to this, the intangible assets such as goodwill would be testes on annually basis

Therefore the first option is correct

7 0
3 years ago
Fortune, Inc., is preparing its master budget for the first quarter. The company sells a single product at a price of S25 per un
alukav5142 [94]

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Selling price= $25 per unit.

Sales (in units):

January= 45,000

February= 55,000

March= 50,000

The cost of goods sold is $14 per unit.

The gross profit is calculated using the following formula:

Gross profit= selling price - cost of goods sold

January:

Sales= 45,000*25= 1,125,000

COGS= 45,000*14= (630,000)

Gross profit= 525,000

February:

Sales= 55,000*25= 1,375,000

COGS= 55,000*14= (770,000)

Gross profit= 605,000

March:

Sales= 50,000*25= 1,250,000

COGS= 50,000*14= (700,000)

Gross profit= 550,000

5 0
3 years ago
The main purpose of performance appraisal is to ________.
LUCKY_DIMON [66]

The main purpose of performance appraisal is to furnish feedback to organization members about how they can become more productive and useful to the organization in its quest for quality.

Therefore option C is correct

<h3>What is Performance appraisal?</h3>

  Performance appraisal can be described as the  periodic and systematic evaluation  of the job performance of an employee and its subsequent documentation documented and evaluation in other to provide verifiable evidence to the management of an organization on the strengths and weaknesses of its employees.

    The idea of performance appraisal should be viewed as a career enhancing prospect. Managers should endeavor to appraise their staff truthfully and honestly in other to bring about a healthy working environment.

Learn more about Performance appraisal at brainly.com/question/7595736

#SPJ1

4 0
2 years ago
Indirect interview request includes of all of the following techniques except
nordsb [41]
Requesting an interview during a telephone call to the employer.

8 0
3 years ago
Suppose that an investor with a 10-year investment horizon is considering purchasing a 20-year 8% coupon bond selling for $900.
leonid [27]

Answer:

8.67%

Explanation:

PMT (Semi-annual coupon) = par value*coupon rate/2 = 1,000*8%/2 = 40

N (No of coupons paid) = 10*2 = 20

Rate (Semi-annual reinvestment rate) = 7%/2 = 3.5%

Future value of reinvested coupons = FV(PMT, N, Rate)

Future value of reinvested coupons = FV(40, 20, 3.5%)

Future value of reinvested coupons = $1,131.19

FV = 1,000

PMT (Semi-annual coupons) = 40

N (No of coupons pending) = 10*2 = 20

Rate (Semi-annual YTM) = 9%/2 = 4.5%

Price of the bond after 10 years = PV(FV, PMT, N, RATE)

Price of the bond after 10 years = PV(1000, 40, 20, 4.5%)

Price of the bond after 10 years = $934.96

Total amount after 10 years = Future value of reinvested coupons + Price of the bond after 10 years

Total amount after 10 years = $1,131.19 + $934.96

Total amount after 10 years = $2,066.15

Amount invested (Price of the bond now) = $900.

Total Annual Return = [(Total amount after 10 years / Amount invested)^(1/holding period)] -1

Total Annual Return = [($2,066.15/$900)^(1/10)] -1

Total Annual Return = [2.295722^0.1] - 1

Total Annual Return = 1.08665561792 - 1

Total Annual Return = 0.08665561792

Total Annual Return = 8.67%

7 0
3 years ago
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