The probability is 1/5 to get a red ball in 1st draw and a white ball in 2nd draw.
<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>
- There are 1 red ball and 4 white balls in a box.
- The total number of balls in the box = 1 red + 4 white = 5 balls.
The two balls are drawn without replacement.
<u>Drawing the first ball :</u>
The first draw should be a red ball.
The probability to get a red ball = No.of red balls / Total balls in the box.
We know that, No. of red balls is 1 and total balls in the box is 5.
P(red ball) = 1/5
<u>Drawing the second ball :</u>
The second draw should be a white ball.
The probability to get white ball = No.of white balls / Total balls in the box.
We know that,
No. of white balls is 4.
The total balls in the box after the first draw will be 4 balls.
P(white ball) = 4/4
The probability of getting a red ball on the first drawn and a white ball on the second draw = P(red ball) × P(white ball)
⇒ (1/5) × (4/4)
⇒ 4/20
⇒ 1/5
Therefore, the probability is 1/5 to get a red ball in 1st draw and a white ball in 2nd draw.
Answer: B
Reason:
44 + x 
66
x 22
Also when we have a greater and equal to sign (), it will be a filled in circle.
Thats why its by.
To solve the problem you must know that to change from Cartesian to polar coordinates you must write:
x = rcos (θ)
Where "r" is the radius
Likewise y = rsin (θ)
Therefore, in the expression r = 3cos (θ) one can write r as:
r = x / cos (θ)
So:
x / cos (θ) = 3cos (θ)
x = 3cos ^ 2 (θ)
The same for y ...
y = rsin (θ)
y = 3cos (θ) sin (θ).
Finally the correct answer is option 2.
x = 3cos ^ 2 (θ) y = 3cos (θ) sin (θ).
