The probabilities are:
- P(red) = 5/24
- P(orange) = 0
- P(blue) = 1/3
- P(not green)= 17/24
- P(green or black) = 11/24
- P(not yellow) = 1.
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How to find the probabilities?</h3>
The probability of getting a particular color of marble, is given by the quotient between the number of marbles of that color and the total number of marbles.
Here we have:
- 5 red marbles.
- 7 green marbles.
- 4 black marbles.
- 8 blue marbles.
So the total number is 5 + 7 + 4 + 8 = 24.
Then:
- P(red) = 5/24
- P(orange) = 0/24 = 0 (because there are 0 orange marbles).
- P(blue) = 8/24 = 1/3
- P(not green) = (24 - 7)/24 = 17/24
- P(green or black) = (4 + 7)/24 = 11/24
- P(not yellow) = 24/24 = 1 (because there aren't yellow marbles).
If you want to learn more about probability, you can read:
brainly.com/question/251701
#SPJ1
1) Our marbles will be blue, red, and green. You need two fractions that can be multiplied together to make 1/6. There are two sets of numbers that can be multiplied to make 6: 1 and 6, and 2 and 3. If you give the marbles a 1/1 chance of being picked, then there's no way that a 1/6 chance can be present So we need to use a 1/3 and a 1/2 chance. 2 isn't a factor of 6, but 3 is. So we need the 1/3 chance to become apparent first. Therefore, 3 of the marbles will need to be one colour, to make a 1/3 chance of picking them out of the 9. So let's say 3 of the marbles are green. So now you have 8 marbles left, and you need a 1/2 chance of picking another colour. 8/2 = 4, so 4 of the marbles must be another colour, to make a 1/2 chance of picking them. So let's say 4 of the marbles are blue. We know 3 are green and 4 are blue, 3 + 4 is 7, so the last 2 must be red.
The problem could look like this:
A bag contains 4 blue marbles, 2 red marbles, and 3 green marbles. What are the chances she will pick 1 blue and 1 green marble?
You should note that picking the blue first, then the green, will make no difference to the overall probability, it's still 1/6. Don't worry, I checked
2) a - 2% as a probability is 2/100, or 1/50. The chance of two pudding cups, as the two aren't related, both being defective in the same packet are therefore 1/50 * 1/50, or 1/2500.
b - 1,000,000/2500 = 400
400 packages are defective each year
Answer:
I was unsure about the way your question was written so I solved for two equations: f(x)=14(5-x)*2 and f(x)=14(5-x)+2
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
1/6≈0.17≈17%
Step-by-step explanation:
