(x+6)(x+8) = 0
x = -6 or x = -8
I'm just wondering, does the equation happen to be 2x^2 + 14x + 48? That would make more sense with the answer I got.
3xy(x+4)(2y+7)(xy+1) is what I got
1cm *10 = 10km
40cm * 10 = 400 km
50km/50 = 1cm
400km/50 = 8cm
A: 8cm
The answer would be 2/121 because P= 0/11 so that is cancelled out M= 2/11 H=1/11
So you take M and multiply it times H and it gives you the answer .
Hope this helped !!
There is a fifty percent chance of the coin landing on "heads" each time it is flipped.
However, flipping a coin 20 times virtually guarantees that it will land on "heads" at least once in that twenty times. <span>(99.9999046325684 percent chance)
</span>
You can see this by considering two coin flips. Here are the possibilities:
Heads, heads.
Heads, tails.
Tails, tails.
Tails, heads.
You will note in the tossing of the coin twice that while each flip is
fifty/fifty, that for the two flip series, there are three ways that it
has heads come up at least once, and only one way in which heads does
not come up. In other words, while it is a fifty percent chance
for heads each time, it is a seventy five percent chance of seeing it
be heads once if you are flipping twice. If you wish to know
the odds of it not being heads in a twenty time flip, you would multiply
.5 times .5 times .5...twenty times total. Or .5 to the twentieth
power. That works out to a 99.9999046325684 percent chance of
it coming up heads at least once in the twenty times of it being
flipped.
