Answer:
subtracting the risk-free rate of return from the market rate of return
Explanation:
Market risk premium is the premium over the risk free rate that investors demand for holding a risky asset
Market risk premium = market rate of return - risk free rate
the higher the risk premium, the higher the return investors are demanding and the riskier the investment
for example if risk free rate is 5% , market rate of return in industry A is 10% while in industry B it is 20%
Market premium in A = 10% - 5% = 5%
Market premium in b = 20% - 5% = 15%
Answer:
B) False
Explanation:
Glocalization is a term that combines both globalization and localization. It was first used during the 1980s in Japan to define a way of thinking and developing business strategies: think locally and act globally.
Back in the 1980s Japan's economy was booming, it was the second largest economy in the world and Japanese car manufacturers and technological firms were wiping out the competition. This term refers to the western interpretation of Japanese business strategies of that decade, of selling similar but differentiated products everywhere.
E.g. American car manufacturers used to complain that Japanese consumers wouldn't buy their cars in Japan, but they simply had the steering wheel on the wrong side and Japanese consumers were not willing to even try them for that reason.
Luckily, things have changed and American companies also realized that their reality is not necessarily the reality of the rest of the world, and you must adapt your products to different markets.
Answer:
future worth:
project A 11,615.26
project B 12,139.18
It should choose project B as their future value is greater
IRR of project A: 13.54%
We should remember that the IRR is the rate at which the net value is zero thus, equals the inflow with the cash outlay
It is calculate with excel or financial calculator due to the complex of the formula.
Explanation:
Project A
We calculate the future value of the cash flow per year and cost as we are asked for future value. The salvage value is already at the end of the project life so we don't adjust it.
Revenues future value
C 15,000
time 8
rate 0.12
FV $184,495.3970
Expenses future value
C 3,000
time 10
rate 0.12
FV $52,646.2052
Cost future value
Principal 40,000.00
time 10.00
rate 0.12000
Amount 124,233.93
Net future worth:
-124,233.93 cost - 52,646.21 expenses + 184,495.40 revenues + 4,000 salvage value
future worth 11,615.26
Project B
cost:
Principal 60,000.00
time 10.00
rate 0.12000
Amount 186,350.89
expenses 52,646.21 (same as previous)
revenues
C 24,000
time 7
rate 0.12
FV $242,136.2815
TOTAL
242,136.28 + 9,000 - 52,646.21 - 186,350.89 = 12,139.18
Internal rate of return of project A
we write the time and cash flow for each period.
Time Cash flow
0 -40,000
1 -3,000
2 -3,000
3 12,000
4 12,000
5 12,000
6 12,000
7 12,000
8 12,000
9 12,000
10 16,000
IRR 13.54%
Then we write on excel the function =IRR(select the cashflow)
and we got the IRR of the project
Answer:
, other things being equal?DPMO= # of defects/# of opportunities for error per unit x # of units (1,000,000)DPMO= 23/1500 x 1,000,000 or DPMO= 23/1,500,000,000 or DPMO= 1.53The 1.53 is within the target specification of Six Sigma. This performance is rated as within limits means the process is working well. The product is within the limits of the defects allowed based off the1500 parts or the “four defects per million units
Explanation:
It should disclose all the terms and conditions, otherwise the purchase agreement wouldn't be binding.
